Monday, March 28, 2022

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 June- 2012 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2012



 


1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication
(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way
Correct Answer is C

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A) Lucknow
(B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai
(D) Mumbai
Correct Answer is B

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926
(B) 1936
(C) 1946
(D) 1956
Correct Answer is B

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?
(A) NTCS
(B) PAL
(C) NTSE
(D) SECAM
Correct Answer is B

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity
Correct Answer is D

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points
Correct Answer is D

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, …………

(A) 60
(B) 64
(C) 72
(D) 70
Correct Answer is C

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………
(A) N
(B) M
(C) O
(D) L
Correct Answer is B

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
Correct Answer is A

10. The basis of the following classification is : ‘first President of India’, ‘author of Godan’, ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description
Correct Answer is C

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive
Correct Answer is D

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :

(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Correct Answer is A

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Correct Answer is B

14. Determine the nature of the following definition : “Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Theoretical
Correct Answer is B

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Correct Answer is B

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
Correct Answer is A

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(A) certainty
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture
(D) surety
Correct Answer is C

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :

(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is C

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
Correct Answer is C

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 33.33%
Correct Answer is A

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions
Correct Answer is A

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A) 11 AM
(B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM
(D) 1:30 PM
Correct Answer is C
The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below:

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation?
(A) 6.79 GW
(B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW
(D) 29.1 GW
Correct Answer is A

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation?
(A) 29.1 GW
(B) 26.19 GW
(C) 67.9 GW
(D) 97 GW
Correct Answer is B

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(A) Phone lines
(B) LAN
(C) Internet
(D) a Server
Correct Answer is C

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Correct Answer is B

27. Which of the following is not a programming language?
(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++
Correct Answer is B

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
Correct Answer is D

29. Internet explorer is a type of
(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address
Correct Answer is C

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
Correct Answer is C

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A) Sulphur di-oxide
(B) Ozone
(C) PAN
(D) Nitrous oxide
Correct Answer is C

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(D) Fertilizers
Correct Answer is C

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(A) Clean air
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water
(D) Salt
Correct Answer is D

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water?
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(D) Density
Correct Answer is D

35. S and P waves are associated with
(A) floods
(B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes
(D) tidal energy
Correct Answer is C

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I

List-II

(i) Ozone hole

(a) Tsunami

(ii) Greenhouse effect

(b) UV radiations

(iii) Natural hazards

(c) Methane

(iv) Sustainable development

(d) Eco-centrism

Code:
  (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
Correct Answer is A

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan
(D) Chandigarh
Correct Answer is B

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education
(A) 04
(B) 05
(C) 06
(D) 08
Correct Answer is A

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Correct Answer is D

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Correct Answer is B

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
Correct Answer is B

42. The President of India takes oath
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.
Correct Answer is D

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
Correct Answer is D

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?
(A) Reliability
(B) Objectivity
(C) Ambiguity
(D) Validity
Correct Answer is C

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?
(A) Overhead projector
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Slide projector
Correct Answer is B

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
Correct Answer is D

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Correct Answer is D

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Correct Answer is D

49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research
Correct Answer is A

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used?
(A) ibid
(B) et.al
(C) op.cit :
(D) loc.cit.
Correct Answer is A

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study
(D) Experimental study
Correct Answer is B

52. Conferences are meant for
(A) Multiple target groups
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident
Correct Answer is A

54. Research ethics do not include
(A) Honesty
(B) Subjectivity
(C) Integrity
(D) Objectivity
Correct Answer is B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60

    James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”
    The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

 55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge
(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings
(D) by denying public information
Correct Answer is A

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
Correct Answer is A

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
Correct Answer is B

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
Correct Answer is C

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Correct Answer is D

General-UGC-NET-Examination-Question-Paper-1-2012-December-Set-W

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2012



 


1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense
Correct Answer is A

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
Correct Answer is A

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Correct Answer is A

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald
Correct Answer is A

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A) K.A. Abbas
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Correct Answer is D

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Power equation
Correct Answer is B

7. The missing number in the series :
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is

(A) 240
(B) 220
(C) 280
(D) 210
Correct Answer is D

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80
(B) 100
(C) 90
(D) 110
Correct Answer is B

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A) 4
(B) 15/2
(C) 15/4
(D) 6
Correct Answer is C

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A) AMSLR
(B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL
(D) SAMLR
Correct Answer is A

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20
(B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12
(D) 40, 10
Correct Answer is A

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (?), C means divided by (÷) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Correct Answer is X

13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the right code given below :
Assertion–I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II : The difference of skin colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes:

(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.
Correct Answer is B

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is A

15. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
Correct Answer is D

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?

(A) Customer
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
Correct Answer is D

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :

(A) I & II
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV
(D) II & IV
Correct Answer is C

18. Choose the right code:
A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes :

(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is A
On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than 5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10
(D) 2010-11
Correct Answer is B

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting
(D) Social welfare and nutrition
Correct Answer is C

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting
(B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment
(D) Social welfare & nutrition
Correct Answer is D

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010- 11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Overall social services
Correct Answer is B

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment
(B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Correct Answer is A

25. ALU stands for
(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Correct Answer is D

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Correct Answer is D

27. Computer Virus is a
(A) Hardware
(B) Bacteria
(C) Software
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is C

28. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) (17)10
 = (17)16
(B) (17)10
 = (17)8
(C) (17)10
 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10
 = (10001)2
Correct Answer is D

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is .................
(A) .pdf
(B) .doc
(C) .docx
(D) .txt
Correct Answer is C

30. .............. is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download emails to your computer.
(A) TCP
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP
(D) POP
Correct Answer is D

31. Which of the following is a source of methane?
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry
Correct Answer is A

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium
(D) Zinc
Correct Answer is B

33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Correct Answer is A

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity
Correct Answer is D

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
Correct Answer is C

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves
Correct Answer is A

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
Correct Answer is C

38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(A) the U.K.
(B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) Canada
Correct Answer is B

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 3 only
Correct Answer is A

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings?
1. His Excellency
2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble
4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

List-II

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme

(i) Mid-day Meals

(b) Human Development Scheme

(ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)

(c) Social Assistance Scheme

(iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)

(d) Minimum Need Scheme

(iv) MNREGA

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Correct Answer is A

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level of ability and motivation
Correct Answer is D

44. Classroom communication must be
(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
Correct Answer is B

45. The best method of teaching is to
(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it
Correct Answer is D

46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(A) Argument
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
Correct Answer is C

47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Correct Answer is C

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Correct Answer is C

49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index
Correct Answer is A

50. Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one jo urnal.
Correct Answer is B

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Correct Answer is D

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
Correct Answer is A

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:
1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion

(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
Correct Answer is B

54. Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Correct Answer is D
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):

    The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
    In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

 55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is

(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Neutral
(D) Unspecified
Correct Answer is B

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million
(B) 40 million
(C) 50 million
(D) 60 million
Correct Answer is A

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
Correct Answer is A

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization
(B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is A

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
Correct Answer is C

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress
(D) The limits to growth
Correct Answer is D

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