Monday, March 28, 2022

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 December- 2010 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2010



UGC NET General Paper

1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
(A) Socio-economic Status
(B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude
(D) Professional Attitude
Correct Answer is D

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be classified as
(A) Descriptive Survey
(B) Experimental Research
(C) Case Study
(D) Ethnography
Correct Answer is B

3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
(A) Qualitative Research
(B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study
(D) Probability Sampling
Correct Answer is A

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
(A) Vocational Interest
(B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations
(D) Achievement Motivation
Correct Answer is C
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:

    It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
    Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.
    Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
    It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement.
Correct Answer is B

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical
(B) Cultural
(C) Technological
(D) Psychological
Correct Answer is D

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement
(B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement
(D) movement represented by Gandhi
Correct Answer is C

8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality
(B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes
(D) lead the Indian National Congress
Correct Answer is B

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses
Correct Answer is A

10. The author concludes the passage by
(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Correct Answer is C

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
(A) Networked media
(B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media
(D) Multimedia
Correct Answer is A

12. The information function of mass communication is described as
(A) diffusion
(B) publicity
(C) surveillance
(D) diversion
Correct Answer is C

13. An example of asynchronous medium is
(A) Radio
(B) Television
(C) Film
(D) Newspaper
Correct Answer is D

14. In communication, connotative words are
(A) explicit
(B) abstract
(C) simple
(D) cultural
Correct Answer is D

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(A) embedded text
(B) internal text
(C) inter-text
(D) sub-text
Correct Answer is D

16. In analog mass communication, stories are
(A) static
(B) dynamic
(C) interactive
(D) exploratory
Correct Answer is A

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship:
(A) often : rarely
(B) frequently : occasionally
(C) constantly : frequently
(D) intermittently : casually
Correct Answer is A

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence :
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Correct Answer is B

19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30
(B) 37
(C) 39
(D) 41
Correct Answer is B

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :
AF : IK : : LQ : ?

(A) MO
(B) NP
(C) OR
(D) TV
Correct Answer is D

21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Correct Answer is A

22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Correct Answer is D

23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?
Statements :
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions :
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.

(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows
Correct Answer is D

24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) only
Correct Answer is B

25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning
(D) Transcendental Reasoning
Correct Answer is D

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 4
(D) 3
Correct Answer is D

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B ?

((A) Tailor and barber
(B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook
(D) Tailor and washerman
Correct Answer is C

28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram
(B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table
(D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Correct Answer is D

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India
(D) Infotech India Ltd.
Correct Answer is D

30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
(A) 0 – 7
(B) 0 – 9 , A – F
(C) 0 – 7, A – F
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is B

31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is used)
(A) 11110001
(B) 11110000
(C) 10001111
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is A

32. 1 GB is equal to
(A) 230
 bits
(B) 230
 bytes
(C) 220
 bits
(D) 220
 bytes
Correct Answer is B

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called
(A) Compiler system
(B) Operation system
(C) Operating system
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is C

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for
(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
Correct Answer is A

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power
(B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation
(D) Nuclear energy
Correct Answer is D

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L
(B) 400 mg/L
(C) 300 mg/L
(D) 200 mg/L
Correct Answer is A

37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
(A) Arundhati Roy
(B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt
(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Correct Answer is D

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO2
 and O3
(B) SO2
 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN
(D) SO2
 and SPM
Correct Answer is C

39. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer is A

40. Volcanic eruptions affect
(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
(B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Correct Answer is D

41. India’s first Defense University is in the State of
(A) Haryana
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab
Correct Answer is A

42. Most of the Universities in India
(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Correct Answer is C

43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Correct Answer is D

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Correct Answer is B

45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Correct Answer is D

46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Correct Answer is B

47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle represents ‘mortality’, which one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are mortal.’ ?

Correct Answer is C
The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52:

48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum?
(A) 2006
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Correct Answer is C

49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008 ?
(A) 3000
(B) 2867
(C) 3015
(D) 2600
Correct Answer is D

50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the year 2010 ?
(A) 2007
(B) 2006
(C) 2009
(D) 2008
Correct Answer is B

51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010 ?
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 2 : 3
Correct Answer is B

52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007 ?
(A) 6 : 7
(B) 7 : 6
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
Correct Answer is C

53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because such children
(A) Are gifted
(B) Come from rich families
(C) Show artificial behavior
(D) Create indiscipline in the class
Correct Answer is A

54. The most important quality of a good teacher is
(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
(B) Good communication skills
(C) Concern for students’ welfare
(D) Effective leadership qualities
Correct Answer is A

55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student relationship?
(A) Very informal and intimate
(B) Limited to classroom only
(C) Cordial and respectful
(D) Indifferent
Correct Answer is C

56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to
(A) supervise the work of their wards
(B) arrange for extra tuition
(C) remain unconcerned about it
(D) interact with teachers frequently
Correct Answer is A

57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
(D) loud discussion among students
Correct Answer is C

58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the examination, the teacher should
(A) try to help him
(B) ask him not to talk in those terms
(C) refuse politely and firmly
(D) ask him rudely to go away
Correct Answer is C

59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process?
(A) Systematic Activity
(B) Objective Observation
(C) Trial and Error
(D) Problem Solving
Correct Answer is B

60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?
(A) Family size
(B) Intelligence
(C) Height
(D) Attitude
Correct Answer is B


Sunday, March 27, 2022

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 June- 2009 Set- WXYZ

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2009



UGC NET General Paper June 2009

1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:
(A) Linguistic expression
(B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D) Comprehension of subject
Correct Answer is D

2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?
(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To teach within understanding level of students
(C) For students’ attention
(D) To make students attentive
Correct Answer is B

3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:
(A) Learning
(B) Research
(C) Heredity
(D) Explanation
Correct Answer is A

4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
Correct Answer is B

5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(A) Attitudes
(B) Concepts
(C) Knowledge
(D) Maturation
Correct Answer is D

6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?
(A) Through its impartiality
(B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity
(D) All of these
Correct Answer is D

7. Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is B

8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:
(A) Cultural background of the country
(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Correct Answer is A

9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research?
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

10. We use Factorial Analysis:
(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables
Correct Answer is C
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

    While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
    While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
    In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
    Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.
    The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue.
    It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule.
    Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration.
    Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration.
    There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.

11. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Correct Answer is C

12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?
(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.
Correct Answer is B

13. Democracy is practiced where:
(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Correct Answer is A

14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Correct Answer is A

15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats
(B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons
(D) Merchants and artisans
Correct Answer is D

16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world?
(A) TPS
(B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference
(D) Video teletext
Correct Answer is C

17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?
(A) NDTV24x7
(B) ZEE News
(C) Aajtak
(D) Lok Sabha channel
Correct Answer is D

18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:
(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D) Entertainment only
Correct Answer is B

19. In communication chatting in internet is:
(A) Verbal communication
(B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication
(D) Grapevine communication
Correct Answer is C

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I (Artists)

List-II (Art)

(a) Pandit Jasraj

(i) Hindustani vocalist

(b) Kishan Maharaj

(ii) Sitar

(c) Ravi Shankar

(iii) Tabla

(d) Udai Shankar

(iv) Dance

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Correct Answer is C

21. Insert the missing number in the following:
3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48

(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 45
Correct Answer is C

22. In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS
(D) SEPTS
Correct Answer is C

23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:
BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?

(A) FHJL
(B) RPNL
(C) LNPR
(D) LJHF
Correct Answer is X

24. What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001?
(A) Friday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Sunday
(D) Wednesday
Correct Answer is X

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence.
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Correct Answer is B

26. In a deductive argument conclusion is:
(A) Summing up of the premises
(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Correct Answer is C

27. 'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:
(A) Some man are mortal
(B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal
(D) No mortal is man
Correct Answer is A

28. A deductive argument is valid if:
(A) premises are false and conclusion true
(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Correct Answer is D

29. Structure of logical argument is based on:
(A) Formal validity
(B) Material truth
(C) Linguistic expression
(D) Aptness of examples
Correct Answer is A

30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is B
Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following Venn diagram in which there are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g

31. If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the following is to be selected?
(A) g
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
Correct Answer is C

32. If you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A) e
(B) g
(C) b
(D) a
Correct Answer is B

Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35 :

33. In which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2004
(D) 2007
Correct Answer is B

34. In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent compared to the previous year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2007
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Correct Answer is B

35. In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the quantity of previous year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Correct Answer is C

36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet
(B) a web browser
(C) a web server
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer is D

37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
(A) Essar
(B) BPL
(C) Hutchison
(D) Airtel
Correct Answer is D

38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:
(A) Bangalore
(B) Sri Harikota
(C) Chennai
(D) Ahmedabad
Correct Answer is B

39. What is blog?
(A) Online music
(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Correct Answer is C

40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?
(A) www.jeevansathi.com
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com
(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
Correct Answer is D

41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Correct Answer is D

42. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
(A) nearby water bodies
(B) melting
(C) rain fall only
(D) sea only
Correct Answer is C

43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland
(B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region
(D) Indian desert
Correct Answer is C

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I (Institutes)

List-II (Cities)

(a) Central Arid Zone Institute

(i) Kolkata

(b) Space Application Centre

(ii) New Delhi

(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration

(iii) Ahmedabad

(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress

(iv) Jodhpur

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Correct Answer is A

45. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:
(A) 2005
(B) 2004
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Correct Answer is B

46. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:
(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Correct Answer is A

47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?
(A) Delhi University
(B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Correct Answer is D

48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators"?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Correct Answer is D

49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
(A) Article 371 A
(B) Article 371 B
(C) Article 371 C
(D) Article 263
Correct Answer is A

50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
(A) Right to information
(B) Citizens' Charter
(C) Social Auditing
(D) Judicial Activism
Correct Answer is D

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 December- 2009 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2009



UGC NET General Paper

1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Correct Answer is D

2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery

(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4
Correct Answer is C

3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC
(B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE
(D) NCTE and IGNOU
Correct Answer is B

4. The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
Correct Answer is C

5. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Correct Answer is A

6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?
(A) Idealist philosophy
(B) Compassion
(C) Discipline
(D) Entertaining
Correct Answer is B

7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
Correct Answer is A

8. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research
(D) Content analysis
Correct Answer is B

9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
Correct Answer is B

10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis
Correct Answer is D

11. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research
Correct Answer is D

12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Correct Answer is B
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18:

    The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.

13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?
(A) Wavell’s Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials
(D) Red Fort Prisoners
Correct Answer is C

14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
Correct Answer is A

15. I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association
(D) Indian National Army
Correct Answer is D

16. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?

(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Correct Answer is D

17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both
Correct Answer is B

18. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is A

19. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States
(C) Japan
(D) China
Correct Answer is D

20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Correct Answer is A

21. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?
(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
Correct Answer is D

22. Communication becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
Correct Answer is A

23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was
(A) Orkut
(B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com
(D) Twitter
Correct Answer is A

24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to use the projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer is B

25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Saturday
Correct Answer is B

26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Correct Answer is B

27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 76
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is B

28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be answered in
(A) 20 ways
(B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways
(D) 1024 ways
Correct Answer is A

29. What will be the next term in the following? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO
(B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Correct Answer is C

30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?
(A) Rs. 290
(B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360
(D) Rs. 440
Correct Answer is B

31. Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence
(B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations
(D) repeated observation
Correct Answer is C

32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature
(B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature
(D) laws of nature
Correct Answer is A

33. To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical
(B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying
(D) analytical
Correct Answer is D

34. Which of the following is an analogous statement?
(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being
Correct Answer is A
Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the number of persons reading the newspapers.

35. How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers?
(A) 23
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 29
Correct Answer is C

36. How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers?
(A) 23
(B) 25
(C) 2
(D) 48
Correct Answer is C

37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic) behavior of the variable f(t)?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer is C
Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40:

38. In which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y was the maximum?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Correct Answer is C

39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two hospitals in a year?
(A) 8000
(B) 6000
(C) 4000
(D) 2000
Correct Answer is A

40. In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in hospital X?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Correct Answer is D

41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection?
(A) Census of India
(B) National Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India
(D) National Family Health Survey
Correct Answer is C

42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?
(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 –1 –2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8
Correct Answer is D

43. Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet?
(A) Data Encryption
(B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding
(D) Information Retrieval
Correct Answer is D

44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?
(A) Terabyte
(B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte
(D) Gigabyte
Correct Answer is A

45. bit stands for
(A) binary information term
(B) binary digit
(C) binary tree
(D) Bivariate Theory
Correct Answer is B

46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?
(A) Array
(B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue
(D) Stack
Correct Answer is B

47. Which one of the following is not a network device?
(A) Router
(B) Switch
(C) Hub
(D) CPU
Correct Answer is D

48. Compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A) High-level language
(B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language
(D) Natural language
Correct Answer is A

49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast
(D) Delta regions
Correct Answer is A

50. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of which mountain peak?
(A) Kanchenjunga
(B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna
(D) Dhaulavira
Correct Answer is B

51. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles
(B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles
(D) Thermal Power Plants
Correct Answer is D

52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector
(B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry
(D) Chemical industry
Correct Answer is D

53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Correct Answer is A

54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Floods
(C) Landslides
(D) Volcanoes
Correct Answer is B

55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Correct Answer is B

56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Correct Answer is B

57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Lecture
(D) Group Discussion
Correct Answer is D

58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Correct Answer is A

59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Correct Answer is B

60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Correct Answer is A

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