General-UGC-NET-Examination-Question-Paper-1-2013-September-Set-W

UGC NET General Paper
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General-UGC-NET-Examination-Question-Paper-1-2013-June-Set-W

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2013

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1. 'www' stands for

(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
Correct Answer is C

2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
Correct Answer is B

3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
Correct Answer is D

4. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Correct Answer is A

5. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) Characters to bits
(B) High level language to machine language
(C) Machine language to high level language
(D) Words to bits
Correct Answer is B

6. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Correct Answer is C

7. The phrase 'tragedy of commons’ is in the context of
(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources
(D) climate change
Correct Answer is C

8. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Correct Answer is C

9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
Correct Answer is A

10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(A) Oxides Of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Correct Answer is B

11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earth quakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Correct Answer is D

12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3 %
(B) 22-25%
(C) l0-12%
(D) <1%
Correct Answer is C

13. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students
Correct Answer is A

14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities
Correct Answer is D

15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong;
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Correct Answer is C

16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong
Correct Answer is A

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehavior or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Correct Answer is D

18. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only toN
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Correct Answer is C

19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself
Correct Answer is C

20. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-Learning
(D) Blended learning
Correct Answer is C & D

21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Correct Answer is D

22. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Correct Answer is D

23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Correct Answer is B

24. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too, much in the class.
Correct Answer is C

25. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Correct Answer is C

26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good 'research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Correct Answer is B

27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Correct Answer is C

28. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi - Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Correct Answer is D

29. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Correct Answer is D

30. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research
(D) a scientific theory
Correct Answer is C

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, market, serials and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in contemporary texis, it is generally called simply the illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Buhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that the provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

31. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
Correct Answer is B

32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travelers
Correct Answer is D

33. Point out the true statement from the following:
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the 'Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal'.
Correct Answer is C

34. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
Correct Answer is D

35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 - 1636 A.D.
(B) 1630 - 1643A.D.
(C) 1632 -1643 A.D.
(D) 1636 - 1643 A.D.
Correct Answer is C

36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is A

37. In the process of Communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Correct Answer is C

38. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Correct Answer is B

39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Correct Answer is C

40. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
(C) Development Communication
(D) Communitarian
Correct Answer is B

41. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Correct Answer is B

42. …………… is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Correct Answer is B

43. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSF
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSF
Correct Answer is A

44. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Correct Answer is B

45. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
Correct Answer is B

46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
Correct Answer is C

47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85/2
(C) 170/3
(D) 110
Correct Answer is D

48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Correct Answer is D

49. If the statement 'some men are honest' is false, which among the following statements will be true
Choose the correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest
(iv) All men are dishonest
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Correct Answer is B

50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Correct Answer is D

51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Correct Answer is B

52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
Correct Answer is B

53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) & (iv)
Correct Answer is B

54. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) unity in human nature
(B) integrity in human nature
(C) uniformity in human nature
(D) harmony in human nature
Correct Answer is C
Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 55 to 60:

55. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008- 09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007- 08
Correct Answer is D

56. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and l percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Correct Answer is A

57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in are during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Correct Answer is C

58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Correct Answer is B

59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Correct Answer is B

60. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
Correct Answer is A

 

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 December- 2013 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2013

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1. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Correct Answer is D

2. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
Correct Answer is B

3. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
Correct Answer is B

4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
Correct Answer is B

5. Classroom communication can be described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
Correct Answer is D

6. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations
Correct Answer is B

7. In communication, myths have power, but are
(A) uncultural
(B) insignificant
(C) imprecise
(D) unpreferred
Correct Answer is C

8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
Correct Answer is C

9. Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.
Correct Answer is C

10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
Correct Answer is A

11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul ca nw rite and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengal
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna
Correct Answer is C

12. A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false
Correct Answer is D

13. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
Correct Answer is C

14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
(C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical
Correct Answer is C

15. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest
Correct Answer is C
Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the’ world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 57 to 60 based on this table.

16. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
Correct Answer is B

17. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
Correct Answer is D

18. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia
Correct Answer is A

19. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia
Correct Answer is C

20. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
Correct Answer is A

21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
Correct Answer is B

22. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
Correct Answer is A

23. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
Correct Answer is C

24. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer is D

25. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Correct Answer is C

26. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
Correct Answer is A

27. “Women are closer to nature than men.” What kind of perspective is this ?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology
Correct Answer is B

28. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Correct Answer is A

29. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
Correct Answer is D

30. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
Correct Answer is B

31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG
(D) CNG
Correct Answer is B

32. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Correct Answer is A

33. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is B

34. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
Correct Answer is C

35. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

36. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is C

37. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Correct Answer is A

38. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP
(B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is B

39. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer is D

40. A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother’s sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
Correct Answer is D

41. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6
how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Correct Answer is C

42. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A) 85
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 65
Correct Answer is A

43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
Correct Answer is C

44. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
Correct Answer is D

45. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics
Correct Answer is D
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51:

    Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property. (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering Institutes, as has been done in Europe.
    Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based. It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed

(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
Correct Answer is A

47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
Correct Answer is B

48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance
Correct Answer is C

49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent
(B) 11 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 13 percent
Correct Answer is B

50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Correct Answer is B

51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
Correct Answer is D

52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class
Correct Answer is C

53. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and commitment.
(C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.
Correct Answer is C

54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
Correct Answer is B

55. Arrange the following teaching process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Correct Answer is D

56. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques
Correct Answer is C

57. Teacher’s role at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
Correct Answer is B

58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
Correct Answer is A

59. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Covariation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Covariation.
Correct Answer is A

60. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation
Correct Answer is D