General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 December- 2007 Set- WXYZ

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2007

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UGC NET General Paper December 2007

1. Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of:
(A) Aptitudes
(B) Skills
(C) Attitudes
(D) Relationship
Correct Answer is B

2. Which is the most important aspect of the teacher’s role in learning?
(A) The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance
(B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to be avoided
(C) The provision of encouragement and moral support
(D) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help
Correct Answer is C

3. The most appropriate purpose of learning is:
(A) personal adjustment
(B) modification of haviour
(C) social and political awareness
(D) preparing oneself for employment
Correct Answer is B

4. The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be:
(A) encouraged to find answer independently
(B) advised to meet the teacher after the class
(C) encouraged to continue questioning
(D) advised not to disturb during the lecture
Correct Answer is B

5. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:
(A) discussion method
(B) lecture method
(C) audio-visual aids
(D) text book method
Correct Answer is A

6. Generalised conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as:
(A) Data analysis and interpretation
(B) Parameter inference
(C) Statistical inference
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is C

7. The experimental study is based on:
(A) The manipulation of variables
(B) Conceptual parameters
(C) Replication of research
(D) Survey of literature
Correct Answer is A

8. The main characteristic of scientific research is:
(A) empirical
(B) theoretical
(C) experimental
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer is D

9. Authenticity of a research finding is its:
(A) Originality
(B) Validity
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is C

10. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?
(A) Area Sampling Technique
(B) Purposive Sampling Technique
(C) Systematic Sampling Technique
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is C
Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 :

    Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on what human beings need rather than what they want. His early introduction to the teachings of Jains, Theosophists, Christian sermons, Ruskin and Tolstoy, and most significantly the Bhagavad Gita, were to have profound impact on the development of Gandhi's holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological interrelation. His deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an ambience for an alternative social thinking that was at once far-sighted, local and immediate. For Gandhi was acutely aware that the demands generated by the need to feed and sustain human life, compounded by the growing industrialization of India, far outstripped the finite resources of nature. This might nowadays appear naive or commonplace, but such pronouncements were as rare as they were heretical a century ago. Gandhi was also concerned about the destruction, under colonial and modernist designs, of the existing infrastructures which had more potential for keeping a community flourishing within ecologically-sensitive traditional patterns of subsistence, especially in the rural areas, than did the incoming Western alternatives based on nature-blind technology and the enslavement of human spirit and energies.
    Perhaps the moral principle for which Gandhi is best known is that of active non-violence, derived from the traditional moral restraint of not injuring another being. The most refined expression of this value is in the great epic of the Mahabharata, (c. 100 BCE to 200 CE), where moral development proceeds through placing constraints on the liberties, desires and acquisitiveness endemic to human life. One's action is judged in terms of consequences and the impact it is likely to have on another. Jainas had generalized this principle to include all sentient creatures and biocommunities alike. Advanced Jaina monks and nuns will sweep their path to avoid harming insects and even bacteria. Non-injury is a non-negotiable universal prescription.

11. Which one of the following have a profound impact on the development of Gandhi’s holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological interrelations ?
(A) Jain teachings
(B) Christian sermons
(C) Bhagavad Gita
(D) Ruskin and Tolstoy
Correct Answer is C

12. Gandhi’s overall social and environmental philosophy is based on human beings’ :
(A) need
(B) desire
(C) wealth
(D) welfare
Correct Answer is D

13. Gandhiji’s deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an ambience for an alternative:
(A) rural policy
(B) social thinking
(C) urban policy
(D) economic thinking
Correct Answer is B

14. Colonial policy and modernization led to the destruction of:
(A) major industrial infrastructure
(B) irrigation infrastructure
(C) urban infrastructure
(D) rural infrastructure
Correct Answer is D

15. Gandhi’s active non-violence is derived from:
(A) Moral restraint of not injuring another being
(B) Having liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
(C) Freedom of action
(D) Nature-blind technology and enslavement of human spirit and energies
Correct Answer is A

16. DTH service was started in the year:
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2004
(D) 2006
Correct Answer is C

17. National Press day is celebrated on:
(A) 16th November
(B) 19th November
(C) 21st November
(D) 30th November
Correct Answer is A

18. The total number of members in the Press Council of India are:
(A) 28
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 20
Correct Answer is A

19. The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article:
(A) 19 (2) (a)
(B) 19 (16)
(C) (19) (2)
(D) (19) (1) (a)
Correct Answer is D

20. Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
(A) Enriching curriculum based instruction
(B) Replacing teacher in the long run
(C) Everybody having access to a radio set
(D) Other means of instruction getting outdated
Correct Answer is A

21. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the following series:
5, 4, 9, 17, 35, ? = 139
(A) 149
(B) 79
(C) 49
(D) 69
Correct Answer is D
Questions 22 to 24 are based on the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles I, S and P, where circle I stands for Indians, circle S for Scientists and circle P for Politicians. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f

22. The region which represents Non-Indian Scientists who are Politicians:
(A) f
(B) d
(C) a
(D) c
Correct Answer is A

23. The region which represents Indians who are neither Scientists nor Politicians:
(A) g
(B) c
(C) f
(D) a
Correct Answer is B

24. The region which represents Politicians who are Indians as well as Scientists:
(A) b
(B) c
(C) a
(D) d
Correct Answer is C

25. Which number is missing in the following series ?
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69
Correct Answer is B

26. The function of measurement includes:
(A) Prognosis
(B) Diagnosis
(C) Prediction
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is D

27. Logical arguments are based on:
(A) Scientific reasoning
(B) Customary reasoning
(C) Mathematical reasoning
(D) Syllogistic reasoning
Correct Answer is D

28. Insert the missing number:
4:17 : : 7:?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 50
(D) 51
Correct Answer is C

29. Choose the odd word:
(A) Nun
(B) Knight
(C) Monk
(D) Priest
Correct Answer is B

30. Choose the number which is different from others in the group:
(A) 49
(B) 63
(C) 77
(D) 81
Correct Answer is B

31. Probability sampling implies:
(A) Stratified Random Sampling
(B) Systematic Random Sampling
(C) Simple Random Sampling
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is D

32. Insert the missing number:
36/62, 39/63, 43/61, 48/64, ?
(A) 51/65
(B) 56/60
(C) 54/60
(D) 33/60
Correct Answer is C

33. At what time between 3 and 4 O’clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(A) 40 minutes past three
(B) 45 minutes past three
(C) 50 minutes past three
(D) 55 minutes past three
Correct Answer is C

34. Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three children is a boy?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 3/4
D) 1/8
Correct Answer is D

35. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased by:
(A) 125 per cent
(B) 100 per cent
(C) 75 per cent
(D) 50 per cent
Correct Answer is A

36. CD ROM stands for:
(A) Computer Disk Read Only Memory
(B) Compact Disk Read Over Memory
(C) Compact Disk Read Only Memory
(D) Computer Disk Read Over Memory
Correct Answer is C

37. The ‘brain’ of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is called:
(A) Common Power Unit
(B) Common Processing Unit
(C) Central Power Unit
(D) Central Processing Unit
Correct Answer is D

38. Data can be saved on backing storage medium known as:
(A) Compact Disk Recordable
(B) Computer Disk Rewritable
(C) Compact Disk Rewritable
(D) Computer Data Rewritable
Correct Answer is C

39. RAM means:
(A) Random Access Memory
(B) Rigid Access Memory
(C) Rapid Access Memory
(D) Revolving Access Memory
Correct Answer is A

40. www represents:
(A) who what and where
(B) weird wide web
(C) word wide web
(D) world wide web
Correct Answer is D

41. Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:
(A) Soil erosion
(B) Landslides
(C) Loss of bio-diversity
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

42. Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing highest human disaster?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Volcanic eruptions
(C) Snow-storms
(D) Tsunami
Correct Answer is A

43. Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
(A) International AID
(B) Timely Warning System
(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Community Participation
Correct Answer is D

44. Slums in metro-city are the result of:
(A) Rural to urban migration
(B) Poverty of the city-scape
(C) Lack of urban infrastructure
(D) Urban-governance
Correct Answer is A

45. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in:
(A) Thar Desert of India
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
(D) Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot
Correct Answer is A

46. The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:
(A) SATEDU
(B) INSAT - B
(C) EDUSAT
(D) INSAT - C
Correct Answer is C

47. Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:
(A) Gyan Darshan
(B) Cyan Vani
(C) Door Darshan
(D) Prasar Bharati
Correct Answer is A

48. The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in:
(A) Sevagram
(B) New Delhi
(C) Wardha
(D) Ahmedabad
Correct Answer is C

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I (Institutes)	List-II (Locations)
(a) Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages	(i) Chitrakoot
(b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya	(ii) Hyderabad
(c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies	(iii) New Delhi
(d) IGNOU	(iv) Dharmasala

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Correct Answer is A

50. The aim of vocationalization of education is:
(A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
(B) converting liberal education into vocational education
(C) giving more importance to vocational than general education
(D) making liberal education job-oriented
Correct Answer is A

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 June- 2006 Set - WXYZ

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2006

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UGC NET General Paper June 2006

1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill?
(A) Black Board writing
(B) Questioning
(C) Explaining
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?
(A) Teachers can teach.
(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
(C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
(D) Teachers are born.
Correct Answer is B

3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:
(A) Megasthanese
(B) Fahiyan
(C) Huan Tsang
(D) Kalhan
Correct Answer is D

4. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.
(B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
(C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.
(D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to articular university.
Correct Answer is A

5. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?
(I) Define noun.
(II) Define noun in your own words.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer is B

6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?
(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.
(II) to discover new things.
(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(IV) to systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources with objectivity.
(A) IV, II and I
(B) I, II and III
(C) I and III
(D) II, III and IV
Correct Answer is A

7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List – I (Interviews)	List - II (Meaning)
(a) structured interviews	(i) greater flexibility approach
(b) Unstructured interviews	(ii) attention on the questions to be answered
(c) Focused interviews	(iii) individual life experience
(d) Clinical interviews	(iv) Pre determined question
	(v) non-directive

Code:
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
Correct Answer is A

8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?
(A) To bring out holistic approach to research.
(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.
(C) To over simplify the problem of research.
(D) To create a new trend in research methodology.
Correct Answer is A

9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:
(A) improve data interpretation
(B) eliminate spurious relations
(C) confirm triangulation
(D) introduce new variables
Correct Answer is B

10. The depth of any research can be judged by:
(A) title of the research.
(B) objectives of the research.
(C) total expenditure on the research.
(D) duration of the research.
Correct Answer is B
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

    The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.
    Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
    In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission.

11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:
(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Correct Answer is D

12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No. :
(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 161
Correct Answer is A

13. Independence of the Commission means:
(A) have a constitutional status.
(B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers.
(D) have political powers.
Correct Answer is A

14. Fair and free election means:
(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups
Correct Answer is B

15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
(A) 125
(B) 352
(C) 226
(D) 324
Correct Answer is D

16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as:
(A) content supply
(B) surveillance
(C) gratification
(D) correlation
Correct Answer is A

17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as:
(A) cybernetics
(B) reverse communication
(C) selectivity study
(D) response analysis
Correct Answer is A

18. Networked media exist in inter-connected:
(A) social environments
(B) economic environments
(C) political environments
(D) technological environments
Correct Answer is D

19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as:
(A) online communication
(B) integrated media
(C) digital combine
(D) convergence
Correct Answer is D

20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as:
(A) man-machine speak
(B) binary chat
(C) digital talk
(D) interactivity
Correct Answer is D

21. Insert the missing number:
16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34, ?
(A) 19/35
(B) 19/30
(C) 18/35
(D) 18/30
Correct Answer is D

22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November 1994?
(A) Thursday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Saturday
Correct Answer is A

23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is:
(A) 36
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 28
Correct Answer is C

24. In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code?
(A) VNLDM
(B) FHQKN
(C) XPNFO
(D) VLNDM
Correct Answer is A

25. At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(A) 45 min. past 4
(B) 40 min. past 4
(C) 50 4/11 min. past 4
(D) 54 6/11 min. past 4
Correct Answer is D

26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most teachers are hard working.
Conclusions:
(I) Some teachers are hard working.
(II) Some teachers are not hard working.
(A) Only (I) is implied
(B) Only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Correct Answer is C

27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?
(A) Any MLA
(B) Chief of Army Staff
(C) Solicitor General of India
(D) Mayor of Delhi
Correct Answer is C

28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.
(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.
(A) only (I) is implied
(B) only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Correct Answer is B

29. Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:
(A) reduces the shear strength of rocks
(B) increases the weight of the overburden
(C) enhances chemical weathering
(D) is a universal solvent
Correct Answer is B

30. Direction for this question:
Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion :
Statements:
(a) all businessmen are wealthy.
(b) all wealthy people are hard working.
Conclusions:
(i) All businessmen are hard working.
(ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy
(A) Only (i) follows
(B) Only (ii) follows
(C) Only (i) and (ii) follows
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
Correct Answer is A

31. Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called:
(A) cyberventing
(B) cyber ranting
(C) web hate
(D) web plea
Correct Answer is A

32. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant information is termed:
(A) poor recall
(B) web crawl
(C) poor precision rate
(D) poor web response
Correct Answer is A

33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:
(A) virtual reality
(B) fuzzy logic
(C) bluetooth technology
(D) value added networks
Correct Answer is D

34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet appliance is called:
(A) voice net
(B) voice telephone
(C) voice line
(D) voice portal
Correct Answer is C

35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed live casting is called:
(A) virtual video
(B) direct broadcast
(C) video shift
(D) real-time video
Correct Answer is D

36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?
(A) Tripura
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Manipur
Correct Answer is A

37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
(A) high evaporation
(B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
(C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells
(D) seepage of sea water
Correct Answer is D

38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
(A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys
(B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
(C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
(D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Correct Answer is A

39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of:
(A) erosion of top soils by annual floods
(B) inundation of land by sea water
(C) traditional agriculture practices
(D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland
Correct Answer is A

40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India?
(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi
(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi
(D) India International Centre, New Delhi
Correct Answer is C

41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer is A

42. 'SITE' stands for:
(A) System for International technology and Engineering
(B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(C) South Indian Trade Estate
(D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Correct Answer is B

43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for 'Conducting Research at Antarctic?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Yamunotri
(C) Uttari Gangotri
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is A

44. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Women and Child Development
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
(A) With the prior permission of the President.
(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.
(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.
(D) At the request of two or more States.
Correct Answer is D
The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number 46 to 50.

46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is:
(A) 1:15
(B) 1:1
(C) 15:1
(D) 3:20
Correct Answer is B

47. If the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how much was spent on basket ball?
(A) Rs. 9,50,000
(B) Rs. 10,00,000
(C) Rs. 12,00,000
(D) Rs. 15,00,000
Correct Answer is D

48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is :
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis
Correct Answer is C

49. Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on :
(A) Hockey and Tennis
(B) Golf and Basket ball
(C) Cricket and Football
(D) Hockey and Golf
Correct Answer is B

50. If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket and hockey together was:
(A) Rs. 60,00,000
(B) Rs. 50,00,000
(C) Rs. 37,50,000
(D) Rs. 25,00,000
Correct Answer is A

General UGC-NET Examination Question Paper-1 December- 2006 Set- WXYZ

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2006

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UGC NET General Paper December 2006

1. Which of the following is not instructional material?
(A) Over Head Projector
(B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material
(D) Transparency
Correct Answer is A

2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Correct Answer is A

3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:
(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture
Correct Answer is B

4. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Correct Answer is B

5. Which of the following indicates evaluation?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

6. Research can be conducted by a person who:
(A) has studied research methodology
(B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
(D) is a hard worker
Correct Answer is A

7. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?
(A) Observation
(B) Historical
(C) Survey
(D) Philosophical
Correct Answer is A

9. Research can be classified as:
(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research
(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

10. The first step of research is:
(A) Selecting a problem
(B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem
(D) Identifying a problem
Correct Answer is B
Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15:

    After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and disham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls: as a nation, who are we? As a people, where are we going?
    The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the English woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, but an honourable friend.
    This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference: there is culture, not contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs: no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan (closeness).
    All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name: Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.

11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce?
(A) Bling + bling
(B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz
(D) Dooriyan
Correct Answer is B

12. Who made Lamhe in 1991?
(A) Subhash Ghai
(B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra
(D) Sakti Samanta
Correct Answer is B

13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar?
(A) Jewel in the Crown
(B) Kisna
(C) Zaara
(D) Desh Ki dharti
Correct Answer is D

14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra?
(A) Deewar
(B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge
(D) Veer Zaara
Correct Answer is D

15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara?
(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes
(D) Traditional Madrasi Clothes
Correct Answer is C

16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?
(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Correct Answer is C

17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?
(A) Zee News
(B) NDTV 24×7
(C) CNBC
(D) India News
Correct Answer is C

18. Consider the following statements in communication :
(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.
(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation.
(iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iv) only
(D) (iii) only
Correct Answer is D

19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(A) N. Ram : The Hindu
(B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7
(D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak
Correct Answer is B

20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by:
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express
(D) Hindustan Times
Correct Answer is D

21. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is:
(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 32
Correct Answer is C

22. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8:
(A) PLANE
(B) MOPED
(C) MOTOR
(D) TONGA
Correct Answer is B

23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship what is the right choice for the second set?
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A) ORW
(B) MPU
(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Correct Answer is D

24. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as:
(A) 30
(B) 37
(C) 38
(D) 39
Correct Answer is B

25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2:1/3:1/4. If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of the smallest side is:
(A) 9 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm
(D) 12 cm
Correct Answer is D

26. Which one of the following statements is completely nonsensical?
(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married
Correct Answer is B

27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory?
(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer is D

28. Which of the following statements say the same thing?
(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)
(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)
(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)
(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)
(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)
(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (ii) and (vi)
(D) (v) and (vi)
Correct Answer is B

29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing?
(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.
(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.
(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code :
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer is A

30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE?
(i) The sun will not rise in the East someday.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code :
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) alone
Correct Answer is D
Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33:

31. In the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum percent profit?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) f
Correct Answer is D

32. In the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum percent profit?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
Correct Answer is A

33. In the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned maximum average percent profit?
(A) f
(B) e
(C) d
(D) b
Correct Answer is A

34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by:
(A) UNDP
(B) WTO
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
Correct Answer is A

35.The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean marks obtained by each of the class are given below

	Class A	Class B	Class C	Class D
Number of students	10	40	30	20
Arithmetic mean	20	30	50	15

The combined mean of the marks of four classes together will be:
(A) 32
(B) 50
(C) 20
(D) 15
Correct Answer is A

36. LAN stands for:
(A) Local And National
(B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network
(D) Live Area Network
Correct Answer is B

37. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(C) Modem is the operating system
(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
Correct Answer is D

38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer?
(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly pr ocess only quantitative data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative information
Correct Answer is B

39. Information and Communication Technology includes:
(A) On line learning
(B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
(C) Web Based Learning
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of email?
(A) www_mail.com
(B) www@mail.com
(C) WWW@mail.com
(D) www.mail.com
Correct Answer is B

41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
(A) change in weather
(B) sinking of islands
(C) loss of vegetation
(D) extinction of animals
Correct Answer is A

42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be:
(A) decrease in temperature
(B) increase in salinity
(C) growth of phytoplankton
(D) rise in sea level
Correct Answer is C

43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Column I (Water Quality)	Column II (pH Value)
(a) Neutral	(i) 5
(b) Moderately acidic	(ii) 7
(c) Alkaline	(iii) 4
(d) Injurious	(iv) 8

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Correct Answer is C

44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by:
(A) Coal
(B) Firewood
(C) Refuse burning
(D) Vegetable waste product
Correct Answer is B

45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain:
(A) faster than that in rural areas
(B) slower than that in rural areas
(C) the same as that in rural areas
(D) cooler than that in rural areas
Correct Answer is B

46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of:
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Sargent Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
Correct Answer is A or C

47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 29
(C) Article 30
(D) Article 31
Correct Answer is C

48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below:

List - I (Institutions)	List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament	(i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G.	(ii) Enactment of Budget
(c) Ministry of Finance	(iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments	(iv) Legality of expenditure
	(v) Justification of Income

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Correct Answer is B

49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India
(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Correct Answer is C

50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice- Presidential Elections are settled by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Central Election Tribunal
Correct Answer is C