Monday, March 28, 2022

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 June- 2011 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2011



 


1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is C

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as
(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research
Correct Answer is C

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium
Correct Answer is A

4. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data
Correct Answer is B

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10:

    All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
    Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of ‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.
    It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand
(A) the chosen texts of his own
(B) political actions
(C) historical trends
(D) his enquiries
Correct Answer is A

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of
(A) conclusions
(B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness
(D) habitual interpretation
Correct Answer is A

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from
(A) a body of techniques
(B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians
(D) cosmological beliefs
Correct Answer is A

8. What is philistinism?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice
(B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes
(D) Belief that power and its exercise matter
Correct Answer is D

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of
(A) literary criticism
(B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy
(D) intellectual history
Correct Answer is D

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class
(B) a political action
(C) a philosophy of literature
(D) the mirrorimage of philistinism
Correct Answer is D

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more
(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure
Correct Answer is D

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as
(A) channelization
(B) mediation
(C) encoding
(D) decoding
Correct Answer is C

13. Effective communication needs a supportive
(A) economic environment
(B) political environment
(C) social environment
(D) multi-cultural environment
Correct Answer is C

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s
(A) personality
(B) expectation
(C) social status
(D) coding ability
Correct Answer is D

15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become
(A) myths
(B) reasons
(C) experiences
(D) convictions
Correct Answer is D

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s
(A) competence
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity
(D) ethnicity
Correct Answer is C

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words
NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship:

(A) fraction : decimal
(B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom
(D) dividend : divisor
Correct Answer is C

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130
(B) 142
(C) 153
(D) 165
Correct Answer is D

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as
(A) BOBY
(B) COBY
(C) DOBY
(D) OOBY
Correct Answer is B

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set:
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

(A) 10/8
(B) 10/18
(C) 11/19
(D) 10/19
Correct Answer is B

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?
17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane
(B) Moped
(C) Motor
(D) Tonga
Correct Answer is B

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is
(A) 1 : 3
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 5
(D) 1 : 6
Correct Answer is C

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3?
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 3
Correct Answer is A

24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle
(B) Circle
(C) Point
(D) Triangle
Correct Answer is C

25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India?
(A) Pie diagram
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method
Correct Answer is B

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification?
(A) Qualitative
(B) Normative
(C) Spatial
(D) Quantitative
Correct Answer is C

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data?
(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey
Correct Answer is C

28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true?
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) Some men are not cruel.

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) only
Correct Answer is D

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols:
(A) 0 – 7
(B) 0 – 9
(C) 0 – 9, A – F
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is A

30. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in signed magnitude system is
(A) 11101100
(B) 11101101
(C) 10010011
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is C

31. DNS in internet technology stands for
(A) Dynamic Name System
(B) Domain Name System
(C) Distributed Name System
(D) None of these
Correct Answer is B

32. HTML stands for
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links
(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
Correct Answer is A

33. Which of the following is type of LAN?
(A) Ethernet
(B) Token Ring
(C) FDDI
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is D

34. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.
(C) COS is smart card operating system.
(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.
Correct Answer is C

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year
(A) 1986
(B) 1988
(C) 1990
(D) 1992
Correct Answer is A

36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India:
(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind
(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind
(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal
Correct Answer is B

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage
(B) Gastrointestinal problem
(C) Dermal and nervous problems
(D) Liver/Kidney problems
Correct Answer is D

38. The main precursors of winter smog are
(A) N2O and hydrocarbons
(B) NOx
 and hydrocarbons
(C) SO2
 and hydrocarbons
(D) SO2
 and ozone
Correct Answer is C

39. Flash floods are caused
(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical wind shear
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
(D) winds are catabatic
Correct Answer is A

40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is
(A) transport sector
(B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste
(D) commercial sector
Correct Answer is A

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Delhi
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer is A

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by
(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Correct Answer is C

43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India?
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(C) AICTE
(D) CSIR
Correct Answer is C

44. Consider the following statements:
Identify the statement which implies natural justice.

(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Correct Answer is D

45. The President of India is
(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is A

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Correct Answer is D
Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f:

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors
(A) d
(B) e
(C) b
(D) g
Correct Answer is B

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons.
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) g
Correct Answer is A

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists.
(A) e
(B) f
(C) c
(D) g
Correct Answer is C
Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 69
(B) 68
(C) 67
(D) 66
Correct Answer is B

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 63
(B) 62
(C) 61
(D) 60
Correct Answer is C

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 66
(B) 65
(C) 64
(D) 63
Correct Answer is B

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
(A) Allow students to do what they like.
(B) Deal with the students strictly.
(C) Give the students some problem to solve.
(D) Deal with them politely and firmly
Correct Answer is C

54. An effective teaching aid is one which
(A) is colourful and good looking
(B) activates all faculties
(C) is visible to all students
(D) easy to prepare and use
Correct Answer is B

55. Those teachers are popular among students who
(A) develop intimacy with them
(B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades
(D) take classes on extra tuition fee
Correct Answer is B

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is
(A) a variety of teaching aids
(B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) pin-drop silence
(D) strict discipline
Correct Answer is B

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should
(A) ask them to meet after the class
(B) tell them about himself in brief
(C) ignore the demand and start teaching
(D) scold the student for this unwanted demand
Correct Answer is B

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher
(A) frequently talks about values
(B) himself practices them
(C) tells stories of great persons
(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
Correct Answer is B

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are
(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) all the above
Correct Answer is D

60. Research is conducted to
I. Generate new knowledge
II. Not to develop a theory
III. Obtain research degree
IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge
Which of the above are correct?

(A) I, III & II
(B) III, II & IV
(C) II, I & III
(D) I, III & IV
Correct Answer is D

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 December- 2011 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 December 2011



 


1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
Correct Answer is D

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
(D) Media
Correct Answer is B

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali
(D) Tamil
Correct Answer is B

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 2 : 4
Correct Answer is A

5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication
Correct Answer is D

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
Correct Answer is C

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __

(A) 76
(B) 74
(C) 75
(D) 50
Correct Answer is C

8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) A
Correct Answer is B

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 4
Correct Answer is C

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Common names
Correct Answer is D

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Correct Answer is C

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical
(B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive
Correct Answer is D

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct ?
Choose from the codes given below :
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer is A

14. Determine the nature of the following definition:
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs.10,000

(A) persuasive
(B) precising
(C) lexical
(D) stipulative
Correct Answer is B

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town
Correct Answer is A

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
Correct Answer is B

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
Correct Answer is D

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
Correct Answer is D

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10 !
Correct Answer is B

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 180
Correct Answer is B

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5
Correct Answer is C
The total CO2
 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated. Answer questions 23 & 24.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?
(A) 1.5 mmt
(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt
(D) 0.75 mmt
Correct Answer is D

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt
(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt
(D) 4 mmt
Correct Answer is A

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?
(A) Windows Vista
(B) Android
(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is B

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all?
(A) (1111)2
(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10
(D) (1111)16
Correct Answer is A

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle
(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab
(D) Assembler
Correct Answer is B

28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server
Correct Answer is C

29. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System
(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server
Correct Answer is A

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:

(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Correct Answer is C

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols
Correct Answer is C

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Correct Answer is B

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
Correct Answer is B

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
Correct Answer is D

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
Correct Answer is D

36. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2
 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Correct Answer is A

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
Correct Answer is A

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09
Correct Answer is B

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Correct Answer is D

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I (Commissions and Committees)

List-II (Year)

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(i) 2005

(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee

(ii) 1962

(c) K. Santhanam Committee

(iii) 1966

(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

(iv) 1953

Code:
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Correct Answer is B

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Correct Answer is C

42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Correct Answer is D

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation
Correct Answer is C

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale
Correct Answer is D

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Correct Answer is D

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
(A) Blackboard
(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Globe
Correct Answer is C

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Correct Answer is A

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
Correct Answer is C

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law
(B) canon
(C) postulate
(D) supposition
Correct Answer is D

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Correct Answer is B

51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
Correct Answer is C

52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
Correct Answer is D

53. Which one of the following is a research tool?
(A) Graph
(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Diagram
Correct Answer is C

54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard
Correct Answer is B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60):

    The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
    The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
Correct Answer is D

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
Correct Answer is A

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
Correct Answer is D

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Correct Answer is A

59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Correct Answer is D

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
Correct Answer is B

 

General UGC NET Examination Question Paper- 1 June- 2010 Set- W

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2010



 

UGC NET General Paper

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
Correct Answer is A

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community
Correct Answer is C

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10
(D) 1 + 5
Correct Answer is A

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry
Correct Answer is B

5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Correct Answer is A

6. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
Correct Answer is A
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12:

    The phrase “What is it like?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
    How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
    During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
    The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
    Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process
(B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions
(D) professional opinion
Correct Answer is A

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Correct Answer is C

9. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is A

10. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Reflective
(D) Absolute
Correct Answer is C

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe
(B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body
(D) A Planet
Correct Answer is B

12. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Correct Answer is A

13. Action research means:
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Correct Answer is C

14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is C

15. A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is D

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Correct Answer is C

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is B

18. Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed
Correct Answer is D

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is
(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income
Correct Answer is A

20. Post-modernism is associated with
(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television
Correct Answer is B

21. Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organizational
(D) relational
Correct Answer is B

22. In communication, the language is
(A) the non-verbal code
(B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code
Correct Answer is B

23. Identify the correct sequence of the following:
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Correct Answer is D

24. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Correct Answer is D

25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
Correct Answer is C

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
Correct Answer is B

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water
(B) Tree
(C) World
(D) Earth
Correct Answer is D

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother-in-law
Correct Answer is D

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded ?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH
Correct Answer is B

30. Find the next number in the following series: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69
Correct Answer is B

31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument ?
(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.
Correct Answer is B

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(A) he is religious
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich
(D) he is rational
Correct Answer is B

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions :
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good

(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Correct Answer is D

34. Certainty is
(A) an objective fact
(B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical
(D) ontological
Correct Answer is A
Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non-Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f
(B) d
(C) a
(D) c
Correct Answer is C

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
(A) b
(B) c
(C) a
(D) d
Correct Answer is C

37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below:

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot ?
(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.
Correct Answer is D
Study the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in per tonnes. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38 to 40.

38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period?
(A) Saw timber
(B) Plywood
(C) Log
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is A

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
Correct Answer is D

40. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
Correct Answer is C

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics
Correct Answer is C

42. In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
Correct Answer is B

43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
Correct Answer is A

44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?
(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows
Correct Answer is D

45. Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23 ?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is B

46. Which one of the following is different from other members?
(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac
Correct Answer is A

47. Where does a computer add and compare its data?
(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk
(D) Floppy disk
Correct Answer is A

48. Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address
(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer is C

49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of
(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any pe rson.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer is D

50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical
Correct Answer is A

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