Friday, May 3, 2024

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2005

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2005



 


1. Semantic theory of truth holds that a proposition is true if:

(A) it pictures corresponding facts

(B) it is useful

(C) it is logically deductible from other proposition or propositions

(D) it mirrors reality

Correct Answer is D

2. Logical positivists rejected Metaphysics on the basis of:

(A) Picture theory meaning

(B) Verification principle

(C) Use theory of meaning

(D) Falsifiability principle

Correct Answer is B

3. The theory of Mind-Body relationship of Descartes is known as:

(A) Parallelism

(B) Interactionism

(C) Solipsism

(D) Monism

Correct Answer is B

4. Which philosophy explains Tattva as Samvriti and Paramartha.

(A) Yogāchāra Idealism

(B) Sainkhya

(C) Madhyamikā

(D) Vaibhāsika

Correct Answer is C

5. Which one of the following is forbidden in the Jaina system of morality?

(A) Gunavarta

(B) Siksavrata

(C) Anuvrata

(D) Aticāra

Correct Answer is D

6. Visva, Taijasa and Prājña according to Mandukya Upanisad correspond to the states of:

(A) Svapna, Jägrta, Susupti

(B) Susupti, lägrta, Svapna

(C) Jägrta, Svapna, Susupti

(D) Susupti, Svapna, Jägrta

Correct Answer is C

7. According to Iqbal, the body and the soul are:

(A) Distinct and run parallel to one another

(B) Distinct and interact with one another

(C) Distinct but have neither interactive nor parallelist relation with one another

(D) Undetachable from one another

Correct Answer is B

8. Which one of the following statements is not implied by Berkeley's view that' to be is to be perceived',

(A) Ideas can exist only as long as they are being perceived

(B) Qualities cannot exist independently of the perceiving mind (C) Objects cannot exist when they are not perceived by any mind

(D) Objects cannot exist when they are not perceived by human beings

Correct Answer is D

9. Swabhāvavāda is a doctrine accepted by:

(A) Jainā

(B) Buddhist

(C) Nyaya

(D) Chārvāka

Correct Answer is D

10. God according to Nyaya is:

(A) Material cause of the World

(B) Efficient cause of the World

(C) Both material and efficient cause of the World

(D) Neither efficient nor material cause of the World

Correct Answer is B

11. 'Non-existence is a category but not a source of knowledge' is the view of:

(A) Mimamsā

(B) Buddhism

(C) Nyaya-Vaisesika

(D) Chārvāka

Correct Answer is C

12. Sadasat Vilaksana means:

(A) Both sat and asat

(B) Neither sat nor asat nor both

(C) Neither sat nor asat

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer is C

13. In Heideggar's view, modern technology is:

(A) the culmination of anthropocentricism

(B) the application of science

(C) the product of human making

(D) the only way of being

Correct Answer is B

14. Madhva advocates:

(A) Satkāryavāda

(B) Brahma parināmavāda

(C) Asatkāryāvāda

(D) Sadasatkāryavāda

Correct Answer is not Found

15. According to Husserl, a horizon involves:

(A) expectations of the future

(B) potentialities that circumscribe an object

(C) immediate presentation

(D) association with past events

Correct Answer is A

16. According to Wittgenstein, the world is a totality of:

(A) human beings and animals

(B) natural objects like rivers, trees, mountains etc.

(C) facts

(D) artefacts

Correct Answer is C

17. According to Russell 'incomplete symbol' means:

(A) not a well formed formula

(B) logical proper name

(C) fragment of a sentence

(D) description

Correct Answer is A

18. According to Plato 'ideas' and 'forms':

(A) are products of our minds

(B) exist as parts of things of the world

(C) exist in a separate world

(D) are produced by sense experience

Correct Answer is C

19. According to Gandhi, we see truth in fragment and from different angles of vision. Who then is to determine the Truth in his view?

(A) God in itself

(B) Nation in its solidarity

(C) Society in its collective wisdom

(D) The individual self

Correct Answer is A

20. Kant's Transcendental idealism is compatible with:

(A) Human Scepticism

(B) Empirical Realism

(C) Subjective Idealism

(D) Platonic Idealism

Correct Answer is B

Instruction: The following items consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion (A) and other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Asser- tion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

21. Assertion (A): Locke made a distinction primary and secondary qualities.

Reason (R): Locke sought to distinguish between appearance and reality.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is C

22. Assertion (A): In Kantian philosophy goodwill does not make use of the principle of approval by an impartial and rational spectator in deciding a course of action.

Reason (R): Goodwill is the principle of action while approval by an impartial and rational spectator is the principle of contemplation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is D

23. Assertion (A): In Moore's view, the statement that good is just the pleasant, is a synthetic and not an analytic proposition.

Reason (R): The words 'good' and 'pleasant stand for distinct qualities.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

24. Assertion (A): Gandhiji identifies God with Truth.

Reason (R): Truth is Universal and all pervasive.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is B

25. Assertion (A): To Ramanuja, Jiva is a prakāra of God.

Reason (R): Jiva is a transformulation of God.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

26. Assertion (A): A categorical imperative is an unconditional direction.

Reason (R): A goodwill is one which acts for the sake of duty alone.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is D

27. Assertion (A): According to Buddha, Samyak drsti is necessary for Nirvana.

Reason (R): Knowledge alone can remove suffering.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is D

28. Assertion (A): Gita does not advocate renunciation of all actions.

Reason (R): Man must act while living in the World.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

29. Assertion (A): Sunyatā itself is called Nirvana in Madhyamika philosophy.

Reason (R): Sunyata is of the nature of cessation of all prapañca.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

30. Assertion (A): According to Berkeley everything that is real is or idea or a collection of ideas.

Reason (R): Berkeley believes that every thing that is real depends for its existence on being perceived.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

31. Assertion (A): Dharma is derived from the root dlır which means to 'support' to 'hold together.

Reason (R): Varna duties really constitutes dharma because they hold together the community.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is B

32. Assertion (A): According to the Bhagavadgita we must not desire the fruit of our action.

Reason (R): The fruit of our action is beyond our control.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is B

33. The correct sequence of Syvāda of Jainism is:

(A) Syādasti, Syādasti avaktavyam, Syādnāsti, Syādnāstiavaktavyam Syadavaktavyam, Syādastināsti, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam

(B) Syādasti, Syādnāsti, Syādastināsti, Syādavaktavyam, Syādastiavaktavyam, Syādnāstiavaktavyam, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam

(C) Syādasti, Syādnāsti, Syādavaktavyam, Syādastiavaktavyam, Syādnāstiavaktavyam, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam, Syndasti-nāsti,

(D) Syndasti, Syādnāsti, Syādavaktavyam, Syadasti-nāsti, Syādastiavaktavyam, Syādnāstiavaktavyam, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam

Correct Answer is B

35. The correct sequence of eightfold path in Buddhism is:

(A) samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyaka samadhi

(B) samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, sanıyaka samadhi, samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa

(C) samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka samadhi

(D) samyaka samadhi, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyak ājivika, samyak karma, samyaka vāni, samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti

Correct Answer is B

35. The correct sequence of eightfold path in Buddhism is:

(A) samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyaka samadhi

(B) samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, sanıyaka samadhi, samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa

(C) samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa, samyaka vāni, samyak karıma, samyak ājivika, samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka samadhi

(D) samyaka samadhi, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyak ājivika, samyak karma, samyaka vāni, samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti

Correct Answer is C

36. The correct sequence of evolution from mind to supermind according to Sri Aurobindo is:

(A) overmind, intuitive mind, illumined mind, higher mind

(B) higher mind, illumined mind, intuitive mind, over mind

(C) illumined mind, higher mind, intuitive mind, over mind

(D) over mind, higher mind, intuitive mind, illumined mind

Correct Answer is B

37. The correct sequence of astasiddhis is:

(A) anima, mahima, laghima, prāpti, prakāmya, vasitva, isitva, yatrakainavasayitva

(B) mahima, laghima, anima, prāpti, prakāmya, vasitva, isitva, yatrakamavasayitva

(C) yatrakamavasayitva, isitva, vasitva, mahima, laghima, anima, prāpti, prakāmya

(D) laghima, anima, mahima, prāpti, prakimya, yatrakamavasayitva, isitva, vasitva

Correct Answer is A

38. The correct sequence of the knowledge originating from sense contact according to Nyaya is:

(A) object, sense organ, mana, soul

(B) sense, organ, object, mana, soul

(C) soul, mana, sense, organ, object

(D) soul, mana, sense, organ, soul

Correct Answer is A

39. The correct sequence of categorics in Kant's Metaphysical Deduction is:

(A) Categorics of quantity, quality, relation, modality

(B) Categorics of relation, quality, modality, quantity

(C)Categories of quality, modality, relation, quantity

(D) Categorics of modality, relation, quality, quantity

Correct Answer is A

40. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Thinkers)

List II (Theory)

(a) Prabhakara

(i) Dualism

(b) Rāmānuja

(ii) The Integral Advaitism

(c) Sri Aurobindo

(iii) Prapatti

(d) Ishvarkrishna

(iv) Akhyāti

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Correct Answer is A

41. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Thinkers)

List II (Theory)

(a) Gaudapada

(i) picture theory of meaning

(b) Democrites

(ii) inward revolution

(c) Early Wittgenstein

(iii) aspersayoga

(d) J. Krishnamurty

(iv) atomism

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Correct Answer is B

42. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Thinkers)

List II (Theory)

(a) Parmenides

(i) existence is an attribute

(b) St. Anselm

(ii) ghost in the machine

(c) Leibniz

(iii) Pure Being

(d) Gilbert Ryle

(iv) Principle of sufficient reason

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Correct Answer is D

43. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Authors)

List II (Texts)

(a) Nagarjun

(i) Nyaya kusumanjali

(b) Udayana

(ii) Vaišesika Sütras

(c) Kanad

(ii) Atmabodha

(d) Sankara

(iv) Madhyamikärika

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) ()

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii)

Correct Answer is D

44. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Authors)

List II (Texts)

(a) G.E. Moore

(i) Anuvyākhyāna

(b) Husserl

(ii) Principia Ethica

(c) Madhavācārya

(iii) Samayasara

(d) Kundakundācārya

(iv) Logical Investigations

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Correct Answer is C

45. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Authors)

List II (Texts)

(a) Aristotle

(i) Will to power

(b) Thomas Aquinas

(ii) An Enquiry concering Human Understanding

(c) David Hume

(iii) Nichomachean Ethics

(d) F. Nietzsche

(iv) Summa Theologiae

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Correct Answer is B

Read the following passage and answer questions numbers from 46 to 50:

Now this supreme wisdom, united to a goodness that is no less infinite, cannot but have chosen the best. For as a lesser evil is a kind of good, even so a lesser good is a kind of evil if it stands in the way of a greater good; and there would be something to correct in the actions of God if it were possible to do better. He is mathematics where there is no maximum nor minimum, in short nothing distinguished, everything is done equally or when that is not possible nothing at all is done; so it may be said likewise in respect of perfect wisdom, which is no less orderly than mathematics that if there were not the best (optimum) among all possible worlds. God would not have produced any. I call 'World' the whole succession and the whole agglomeration of all existent things, lest it be said that several worlds could have existed in different times and different places. For they must needs be reckoned all together as one world or, if you will, as one universe. And even though one should fill all times and all places, it still remains true that one might have filled them in innumerable ways, and that there is an infinitude of possible worlds among which God must needs have chosen the best, since he does nothing without acting in accordance with supreme reason.

46. Something needs to be done when:

(A) there is neither maximum nor minimum

(B) there is nothing distinguished

(C) everything is done equally

(D) we have to improve things

Correct Answer is C

47. The 'world' according to the author consists of:

(A) all possible things

(B) all past things alone

(C) all past and future things

(D) all existent things

Correct Answer is A

48. God cannot but have chosen the best because he acts in accordance with:

(A) practical wisdom

(B) the principle of good and evil

(C) supreme wisdom

(D) his own principles of morality

Correct Answer is C

49. A lesser good becomes an evil if it obstructs:

(A) even a lesser good

(B) a greater good

(C) an equal good

(D) general good

Correct Answer is B

50. We can improve upon God's actions if it were possible:

(A) to act in accordance with His will

(B) to do better than Him

(C) to do worse than Him

(D) to act in accordance with an free will

Correct Answer is C

 

Sunday, April 21, 2024

University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC – NET) 2024

 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE 

(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details) 

Dates, Fee Details and Application Procedure: 

EVENTS DATES 

  • Online registration and submission of Application Form (complete in all respect) through NTA Website: https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/ 20th April 2024 to 10th May 2024 
  • Last date for successful transaction of Examination fee (through Credit Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/UPI Payment Modes 11th May 2024 to 12th May 2024 (up to 11:50pm) 
  • Fee Payable for UGC – NET June 2024 (Pay fee using the Payment Gateway(s) integrated to the Online Application through Net Banking Debit Card / Credit Card / UPI) 
  • General/Unreserved Rs. 1150/- 
  • Gen-EWS*/ OBC-NCL** Rs. 600/- 
  • Scheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST) / Person with Disability (PwD) /Third gender Rs. 325/-  
  • Applicable service/processing charges & GST over and above the Examination Fee, are to be Paid by the candidate to the concerned Bank/ 
  • Payment Gateway Integrator. For details, Appendix -I may be referred to. 
  • Correction in the Particulars of Application Form online only 13th May 2024 to 15th May 2024 
  • Intimation of Cities of exam centres To be Intimated Later 
  • Downloading of Admit Card by the Candidate from NTA Website To be Intimated Later 
  • Dates of Examination 16 June 2024 
  • Duration of Examination 180 minutes (03 hours) 
  • No break between Paper 1 & Paper 2 
  • Timing of Examination To be Intimated Later 
  • Exam Centre, Date and Shift As indicated on the Admit Card 
  • Display of Recorded Responses and Provisional Answer Keys on the Website for inviting challenge(s) from Interested candidates. To be announced later on website 
  • Declaration of Result on NTA website To be Intimated Later 
  • Website(s) www.nta.ac.in , https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/;

University Grants Commission - National Eligibility Test June 2024 

Introduction

1. About National Testing Agency (NTA)

The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GOI) has established the National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.

The NTA has been entrusted by the University Grants Commission (UGC) with the task of conducting UGC-NET which is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award of Junior Research Fellowship and appointment as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.’ and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian universities and colleges.

2. About University Grants Commission (UGC)

The University Grant Commission (UGC) is a Statuary Body of Government of India, Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education, constituted under the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination, determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education. The

UGC`s mandate includes:

• Promoting and coordinating university education.

• Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.

• Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.

• Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges.

• Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.

• Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university education.

3. University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC – NET)

 3.1 UGC-NET is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award of Junior Research Fellowship and appointment as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.’ and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian universities and colleges.

The candidates qualifying under the ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.’ category will be eligible for appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D. but not for the award of JRF.

The candidates qualifying under the ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ category will be eligible for admission to Ph.D. only but not for the award of JRF and/or appointment as Assistant Professor.

 The eligibility will be determined in the following manner:

Qualified for Eligible for

Qualified for

Eligible for

 

JRF

Assistant Professor

Ph.D. admission

Award of JRF and appointment as Assistant Professor

Yes

Yes

Yes

Category-2 Appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.

No

Yes

Yes

Category-3 Admission to Ph.D. only

No

No

Yes

The JRF-qualified candidates are admitted into the Ph.D. programme based on an interview as per the UGC (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree) Regulations, 2022.

UGC NET under category-2 category-3 can be used as an entrance test for Ph.D. admission in place of entrance tests conducted by the different universities/HEIs for admission to Ph.D.

For candidates qualified under the category-2 and category-3, the marks obtained in the NET will have 70% weightage and 30% weightage will be based on the performance in the interview/viva voce conducted by the University/HEI concerned.

The Ph.D. admission will be based on the combined merit of NET marks and the marks obtained in the interview/viva voce.

For admission to Ph.D., the marks obtained in the NET by the candidates in category-2 and category-3 will be valid for a period of one year from the date of declaration of the result of UGC-NET.

The result of NET will be declared in percentile along with the marks obtained by a candidate to utilize the marks for admission to Ph.D.

The number of candidates who will be qualified for ‘admission to the Ph.D. only’ will be decided by the results committee.

 3.2 The selection of candidates for the following Fellowships will be made through the Ministry of Social Justice and

Empowerment:

• National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC)

• National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes (NFOBC) 

• National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities (NFPwD)

Candidates aspiring for the Fellowships listed above, shall also have to apply for the Test.

 UGC – NET June 2024 

The UGC - NET June 2024 will be conducted in OMR Based mode as per the time schedule specified in the Information at a glance, in the Subjects given at Appendix -II in selected Cities spread across the Country (Appendix -VII).

 4.1 Mode of Examination

The Examination shall be conducted in OMR Based mode only.

 4.2 Pattern of Examination

The Test will consist of two papers. Both the papers will consist of objective type, multiple choice questions. There will be no break between papers.

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