Saturday, May 11, 2024

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2013 Re-exam

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2013 Re-exam



 


1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years
Correct Answer is A

2. Telephone is an example of
(A) linear communication
(B) non-linear communication
(C) circular
(D) mechanised
Correct Answer is A

3. Means of grapevine communication are
(A) formal
(B) informal
(C) critical
(D) corporate
Correct Answer is B

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(A) ILO
(B) ITU
(C) UNDP
(D) UNESCO
Correct Answer is D

5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with
(A) reality
(B) falsity
(C) negativity
(D) passivity
Correct Answer is A

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(A) non-pervasive treasure
(B) limited judgement
(C) autonomous virtue
(D) cultural capital
Correct Answer is D

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) affective
(C) cognitive
(D) non-selective
Correct Answer is C

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Correct Answer is C

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A) 38
(B) 42
(C) 52
(D) 24
Correct Answer is D

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) F
Correct Answer is D

11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(A) 238
(B) 432
(C) 542
(D) 320
Correct Answer is A

12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid Rs.156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid Rs.204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A) 236
(B) 240
(C) 248
(D) 256
Correct Answer is B

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(A) QRUWK
(B) RQWUK
(C) RWQUK
(D) RWUKQ
Correct Answer is A

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav
(B) Arjun
(C) Rajesh
(D) Kamal
Correct Answer is B

15. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Correct Answer is B

16. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Correct Answer is B

17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Correct Answer is B

18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Correct Answer is B

19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Correct Answer is A
In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?
(A) 2007–08
(B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10
(D) 2010–11
Correct Answer is C

21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D) Total production of energy
Correct Answer is A

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity
Correct Answer is A

23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?
(A) 2006–07
(B) 2007–08
(C) 2008–09
(D) 2009–10
Correct Answer is C

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Correct Answer is B

25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Correct Answer is C

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Correct Answer is C

27. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Correct Answer is D

28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Correct Answer is D

29. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Correct Answer is D

30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer is A

33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is D
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

    I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
    In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Correct Answer is B

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :

(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Correct Answer is A

37. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Correct Answer is B

38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Correct Answer is B

39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from
(A) 1985 – 2002
(B) 1998 – 2000
(C) 1981 – 2000
(D) 1989 – 2001
Correct Answer is C

40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A) Role of media
(B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

41. A good teacher must be
(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Correct Answer is B

42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Correct Answer is C

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is
(A) Circular
(B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional
(D) Influential
Correct Answer is B

44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) Summative
Correct Answer is B

45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?
(A) Macro teaching
(B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching
(D) Micro teaching
Correct Answer is D

46. CLASS stands for
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Correct Answer is C

47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
(A) Single group experiment
(B) Residual group experiment
(C) Parallel group experiment
(D) Rational group experiment
Correct Answer is B

48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?
(A) t-test
(B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Run test
Correct Answer is A

49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Correct Answer is C

50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :
(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection
Correct Answer is A

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(A) Basic Science
(B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science
(D) Literature
Correct Answer is D

52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?
(A) Univariate analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies
(D) SWOT analysis
Correct Answer is B

53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control variable
Correct Answer is D

54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Correct Answer is D

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
Correct Answer is C

56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?
(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar
Correct Answer is D

57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation
Correct Answer is A

58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I (Biosphere Reserve)

List-II (Area of Location)

a. Nilgiri

i. Deccan Peninsula

b. Manas

ii. Chhattisgarh

c. Similipal

iii. Eastern Himalaya

d. Achankmar-Amarkantak

iv. Western Ghat

Code:
  a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Correct Answer is D

59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea
Correct Answer is D

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India
Correct Answer is C

Friday, May 3, 2024

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2005

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2005



 


1. Semantic theory of truth holds that a proposition is true if:

(A) it pictures corresponding facts

(B) it is useful

(C) it is logically deductible from other proposition or propositions

(D) it mirrors reality

Correct Answer is D

2. Logical positivists rejected Metaphysics on the basis of:

(A) Picture theory meaning

(B) Verification principle

(C) Use theory of meaning

(D) Falsifiability principle

Correct Answer is B

3. The theory of Mind-Body relationship of Descartes is known as:

(A) Parallelism

(B) Interactionism

(C) Solipsism

(D) Monism

Correct Answer is B

4. Which philosophy explains Tattva as Samvriti and Paramartha.

(A) Yogāchāra Idealism

(B) Sainkhya

(C) Madhyamikā

(D) Vaibhāsika

Correct Answer is C

5. Which one of the following is forbidden in the Jaina system of morality?

(A) Gunavarta

(B) Siksavrata

(C) Anuvrata

(D) Aticāra

Correct Answer is D

6. Visva, Taijasa and Prājña according to Mandukya Upanisad correspond to the states of:

(A) Svapna, Jägrta, Susupti

(B) Susupti, lägrta, Svapna

(C) Jägrta, Svapna, Susupti

(D) Susupti, Svapna, Jägrta

Correct Answer is C

7. According to Iqbal, the body and the soul are:

(A) Distinct and run parallel to one another

(B) Distinct and interact with one another

(C) Distinct but have neither interactive nor parallelist relation with one another

(D) Undetachable from one another

Correct Answer is B

8. Which one of the following statements is not implied by Berkeley's view that' to be is to be perceived',

(A) Ideas can exist only as long as they are being perceived

(B) Qualities cannot exist independently of the perceiving mind (C) Objects cannot exist when they are not perceived by any mind

(D) Objects cannot exist when they are not perceived by human beings

Correct Answer is D

9. Swabhāvavāda is a doctrine accepted by:

(A) Jainā

(B) Buddhist

(C) Nyaya

(D) Chārvāka

Correct Answer is D

10. God according to Nyaya is:

(A) Material cause of the World

(B) Efficient cause of the World

(C) Both material and efficient cause of the World

(D) Neither efficient nor material cause of the World

Correct Answer is B

11. 'Non-existence is a category but not a source of knowledge' is the view of:

(A) Mimamsā

(B) Buddhism

(C) Nyaya-Vaisesika

(D) Chārvāka

Correct Answer is C

12. Sadasat Vilaksana means:

(A) Both sat and asat

(B) Neither sat nor asat nor both

(C) Neither sat nor asat

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer is C

13. In Heideggar's view, modern technology is:

(A) the culmination of anthropocentricism

(B) the application of science

(C) the product of human making

(D) the only way of being

Correct Answer is B

14. Madhva advocates:

(A) Satkāryavāda

(B) Brahma parināmavāda

(C) Asatkāryāvāda

(D) Sadasatkāryavāda

Correct Answer is not Found

15. According to Husserl, a horizon involves:

(A) expectations of the future

(B) potentialities that circumscribe an object

(C) immediate presentation

(D) association with past events

Correct Answer is A

16. According to Wittgenstein, the world is a totality of:

(A) human beings and animals

(B) natural objects like rivers, trees, mountains etc.

(C) facts

(D) artefacts

Correct Answer is C

17. According to Russell 'incomplete symbol' means:

(A) not a well formed formula

(B) logical proper name

(C) fragment of a sentence

(D) description

Correct Answer is A

18. According to Plato 'ideas' and 'forms':

(A) are products of our minds

(B) exist as parts of things of the world

(C) exist in a separate world

(D) are produced by sense experience

Correct Answer is C

19. According to Gandhi, we see truth in fragment and from different angles of vision. Who then is to determine the Truth in his view?

(A) God in itself

(B) Nation in its solidarity

(C) Society in its collective wisdom

(D) The individual self

Correct Answer is A

20. Kant's Transcendental idealism is compatible with:

(A) Human Scepticism

(B) Empirical Realism

(C) Subjective Idealism

(D) Platonic Idealism

Correct Answer is B

Instruction: The following items consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion (A) and other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Asser- tion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

21. Assertion (A): Locke made a distinction primary and secondary qualities.

Reason (R): Locke sought to distinguish between appearance and reality.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is C

22. Assertion (A): In Kantian philosophy goodwill does not make use of the principle of approval by an impartial and rational spectator in deciding a course of action.

Reason (R): Goodwill is the principle of action while approval by an impartial and rational spectator is the principle of contemplation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is D

23. Assertion (A): In Moore's view, the statement that good is just the pleasant, is a synthetic and not an analytic proposition.

Reason (R): The words 'good' and 'pleasant stand for distinct qualities.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

24. Assertion (A): Gandhiji identifies God with Truth.

Reason (R): Truth is Universal and all pervasive.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is B

25. Assertion (A): To Ramanuja, Jiva is a prakāra of God.

Reason (R): Jiva is a transformulation of God.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

26. Assertion (A): A categorical imperative is an unconditional direction.

Reason (R): A goodwill is one which acts for the sake of duty alone.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is D

27. Assertion (A): According to Buddha, Samyak drsti is necessary for Nirvana.

Reason (R): Knowledge alone can remove suffering.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is D

28. Assertion (A): Gita does not advocate renunciation of all actions.

Reason (R): Man must act while living in the World.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

29. Assertion (A): Sunyatā itself is called Nirvana in Madhyamika philosophy.

Reason (R): Sunyata is of the nature of cessation of all prapañca.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

30. Assertion (A): According to Berkeley everything that is real is or idea or a collection of ideas.

Reason (R): Berkeley believes that every thing that is real depends for its existence on being perceived.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is A

31. Assertion (A): Dharma is derived from the root dlır which means to 'support' to 'hold together.

Reason (R): Varna duties really constitutes dharma because they hold together the community.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is B

32. Assertion (A): According to the Bhagavadgita we must not desire the fruit of our action.

Reason (R): The fruit of our action is beyond our control.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer is B

33. The correct sequence of Syvāda of Jainism is:

(A) Syādasti, Syādasti avaktavyam, Syādnāsti, Syādnāstiavaktavyam Syadavaktavyam, Syādastināsti, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam

(B) Syādasti, Syādnāsti, Syādastināsti, Syādavaktavyam, Syādastiavaktavyam, Syādnāstiavaktavyam, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam

(C) Syādasti, Syādnāsti, Syādavaktavyam, Syādastiavaktavyam, Syādnāstiavaktavyam, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam, Syndasti-nāsti,

(D) Syndasti, Syādnāsti, Syādavaktavyam, Syadasti-nāsti, Syādastiavaktavyam, Syādnāstiavaktavyam, Syādasti-nāsti avaktavyam

Correct Answer is B

35. The correct sequence of eightfold path in Buddhism is:

(A) samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyaka samadhi

(B) samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, sanıyaka samadhi, samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa

(C) samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka samadhi

(D) samyaka samadhi, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyak ājivika, samyak karma, samyaka vāni, samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti

Correct Answer is B

35. The correct sequence of eightfold path in Buddhism is:

(A) samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyaka samadhi

(B) samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka vāni, samyak karma, samyak ājivika, sanıyaka samadhi, samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa

(C) samyak drsti, samyak samkalpa, samyaka vāni, samyak karıma, samyak ājivika, samyak vyāyam, samyak smriti, samyaka samadhi

(D) samyaka samadhi, samyak smriti, samyak vyāyam, samyak ājivika, samyak karma, samyaka vāni, samyak samkalpa, samyak drsti

Correct Answer is C

36. The correct sequence of evolution from mind to supermind according to Sri Aurobindo is:

(A) overmind, intuitive mind, illumined mind, higher mind

(B) higher mind, illumined mind, intuitive mind, over mind

(C) illumined mind, higher mind, intuitive mind, over mind

(D) over mind, higher mind, intuitive mind, illumined mind

Correct Answer is B

37. The correct sequence of astasiddhis is:

(A) anima, mahima, laghima, prāpti, prakāmya, vasitva, isitva, yatrakainavasayitva

(B) mahima, laghima, anima, prāpti, prakāmya, vasitva, isitva, yatrakamavasayitva

(C) yatrakamavasayitva, isitva, vasitva, mahima, laghima, anima, prāpti, prakāmya

(D) laghima, anima, mahima, prāpti, prakimya, yatrakamavasayitva, isitva, vasitva

Correct Answer is A

38. The correct sequence of the knowledge originating from sense contact according to Nyaya is:

(A) object, sense organ, mana, soul

(B) sense, organ, object, mana, soul

(C) soul, mana, sense, organ, object

(D) soul, mana, sense, organ, soul

Correct Answer is A

39. The correct sequence of categorics in Kant's Metaphysical Deduction is:

(A) Categorics of quantity, quality, relation, modality

(B) Categorics of relation, quality, modality, quantity

(C)Categories of quality, modality, relation, quantity

(D) Categorics of modality, relation, quality, quantity

Correct Answer is A

40. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Thinkers)

List II (Theory)

(a) Prabhakara

(i) Dualism

(b) Rāmānuja

(ii) The Integral Advaitism

(c) Sri Aurobindo

(iii) Prapatti

(d) Ishvarkrishna

(iv) Akhyāti

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Correct Answer is A

41. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Thinkers)

List II (Theory)

(a) Gaudapada

(i) picture theory of meaning

(b) Democrites

(ii) inward revolution

(c) Early Wittgenstein

(iii) aspersayoga

(d) J. Krishnamurty

(iv) atomism

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Correct Answer is B

42. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Thinkers)

List II (Theory)

(a) Parmenides

(i) existence is an attribute

(b) St. Anselm

(ii) ghost in the machine

(c) Leibniz

(iii) Pure Being

(d) Gilbert Ryle

(iv) Principle of sufficient reason

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Correct Answer is D

43. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Authors)

List II (Texts)

(a) Nagarjun

(i) Nyaya kusumanjali

(b) Udayana

(ii) Vaišesika Sütras

(c) Kanad

(ii) Atmabodha

(d) Sankara

(iv) Madhyamikärika

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) ()

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii)

Correct Answer is D

44. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Authors)

List II (Texts)

(a) G.E. Moore

(i) Anuvyākhyāna

(b) Husserl

(ii) Principia Ethica

(c) Madhavācārya

(iii) Samayasara

(d) Kundakundācārya

(iv) Logical Investigations

Code:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Correct Answer is C

45. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Authors)

List II (Texts)

(a) Aristotle

(i) Will to power

(b) Thomas Aquinas

(ii) An Enquiry concering Human Understanding

(c) David Hume

(iii) Nichomachean Ethics

(d) F. Nietzsche

(iv) Summa Theologiae

Code:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Correct Answer is B

Read the following passage and answer questions numbers from 46 to 50:

Now this supreme wisdom, united to a goodness that is no less infinite, cannot but have chosen the best. For as a lesser evil is a kind of good, even so a lesser good is a kind of evil if it stands in the way of a greater good; and there would be something to correct in the actions of God if it were possible to do better. He is mathematics where there is no maximum nor minimum, in short nothing distinguished, everything is done equally or when that is not possible nothing at all is done; so it may be said likewise in respect of perfect wisdom, which is no less orderly than mathematics that if there were not the best (optimum) among all possible worlds. God would not have produced any. I call 'World' the whole succession and the whole agglomeration of all existent things, lest it be said that several worlds could have existed in different times and different places. For they must needs be reckoned all together as one world or, if you will, as one universe. And even though one should fill all times and all places, it still remains true that one might have filled them in innumerable ways, and that there is an infinitude of possible worlds among which God must needs have chosen the best, since he does nothing without acting in accordance with supreme reason.

46. Something needs to be done when:

(A) there is neither maximum nor minimum

(B) there is nothing distinguished

(C) everything is done equally

(D) we have to improve things

Correct Answer is C

47. The 'world' according to the author consists of:

(A) all possible things

(B) all past things alone

(C) all past and future things

(D) all existent things

Correct Answer is A

48. God cannot but have chosen the best because he acts in accordance with:

(A) practical wisdom

(B) the principle of good and evil

(C) supreme wisdom

(D) his own principles of morality

Correct Answer is C

49. A lesser good becomes an evil if it obstructs:

(A) even a lesser good

(B) a greater good

(C) an equal good

(D) general good

Correct Answer is B

50. We can improve upon God's actions if it were possible:

(A) to act in accordance with His will

(B) to do better than Him

(C) to do worse than Him

(D) to act in accordance with an free will

Correct Answer is C

 

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