UGC NET General Paper

Wednesday, June 19, 2024

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2006

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2006

1. According to Heracliths becoming is:

(A) real

(B) unreal

(D) neither real nor unreal

Correct Answer is A

2. According to Plato, the soul has following three parts:

(A) reason, spirit and appetite

(B) truth, morality and values

(D) potentiality, actuality and reality

Correct Answer is A

3. According to Aristotle, the predicables are:

(A) genus, differentia and accident

(B) differentia, accident, genus and property

(D) genus, species, differentia, property and accident

Correct Answer is D

4. The Principle of Harmony is fundamental in the philosophy of:

(A) Spinoza

(B) Descartes

(D) Aristotle

Correct Answer is C

5. According to Descartes, deduction differs from intuition since:

(A) intuition is unreliable, while deduction is reliable

(B) intuition is sensory, while deduction is not so

(D) a certain movement on succession belongs to deduction and not to intuition

Correct Answer is C

6. Which one of the following is the correct definition of secondary qualities, according to Locke ?

(A) Secondary qualities are those whose ideas are not exact resemblances of qualities themselves.

(B) Secondary qualities are those which are imposed on the external objects by human mind

(C) Secondary qualities are nothing in the objects themselves but powers to produce sensations in us by their primary qualities.

(D) Secondary qualities are the powers to produce objects in external world.

Correct Answer is C

7. According to Kant, the original question of metaphysics is:

(A) How is the existence of God is possible ?

(B) How is noumenal reality related to phenomenal reality?

(D) How is talk about freedom and immortality meaningful?

Correct Answer is C

8. According to Russell, physical objects are:

(A) idea

(B) bogus entities

(D) illusions

Correct Answer is C

9. Which one of the following statements is not true of Wittgenstein's Tractates Logic Philosophies ?

(A) The structure of language is isomorphic with the structure of reality

(B) Names are the ultimate constituents of language

(D) The structure of an object corresponds to the structure of a name

Correct Answer is B

10. Heidegger's Dasein is a :

(A) thinking being

(B) material being

(D) worldly being

Correct Answer is D

11. An intentional act of consciousness according to Husserl is:

(A) actively envisions the object

(B) passively apprehends the object

(D) passively discovers the object

Correct Answer is C

12. Which of the following pairs of concepts is propounded by Ryle ?

(A) knowing by acquaintance and knowing by description

(B) knowing how and knowing that

(D) performative utterances and constative utterances

Correct Answer is B

13. The four parts of each veda are:

(A) the Brahmanas, Brahmasutras, Bhagavadgita and Upanishads

(B) the Brahmanas, Bhagavadgita, Aranyakas and Upanishads

(D) the Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads and Brahmasutras

Correct Answer is C

14. Apṛthak Siddhi, according to Ramanuja, is a relation between :

(A) Jiva and Brahman only

(B) Jiva and Jagat only

(D) Brahman and Jagat only

Correct Answer is C

15. in Advaita Vedanta, the two powers of Avidya are called:

(A) Avarana and Maya

(B) Avarana and ahamkara

(D) Avarana and avyakta

Correct Answer is C

16. The view that liberated soul is devoid of knowledge and bliss is accepted by:

(A) Nyaya-Vaisesika

(B) Advaita

(D) Charvaka

Correct Answer is B

17. 'A thing has infinite qualities' is propounded by:

(A) Jainism

(B) Buddhism

(D) Yoga

Correct Answer is C

18. The Charvaka School maintains that reality:

(A) is unknowable

(B) can be known through inference

(D) is perceivable only

Correct Answer is D

19. According to Radhakrishnan the phenomenal world is:

(A) static manifestation of the power of Brahman

(B) only manifestation of the power of Brahman

(D) illusory manifestation of the power of Brahman

Correct Answer is C

20. Nonviolence, according to Mahatma Gandhi is not:

(A) The law of the human species

(B) The gospel of human action

(D) Passive resistance

Correct Answer is C

Instructions:

The following items consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and Reason R are individually true and if so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

21. Assertion (A) : Locke was compelled to say "substance is something I know not what".

Reason (R) : Locke draws a distinction between intuitive, demonstrative and sensitive knowledge.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

22. Assertion (A) : In Gandhian ethics the golden rule of conduct is tolerance.

Reason (R) : Conscience is not the same thing for all.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

23. Assertion (A) According to Sankara the individual selves are identical with Brahman.

Reason (R) : The Laksyärtha of the statement Tattvamasi should be admitted instead of its Sabdartha.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

24. Assertion (A) : Sankara critised the Nyaya theory of Khyātivāda.

Reason (R) : According to Sankara effect must exist in the cause before its manifestation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

25. Assertion (A) : According to Moore Mill has committed a naturalistic fallacy.

Reason (R) : Mill has defined a natural property, goodness in terms of another natural property called pleasure.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

26. Assertion (A) : According to Gandhi Satya is the end and ahimsa is the means.

Reason (R) : Gandhi believes that end and means are interdependent.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

27. Assertion (A) : According to Kant moral duty is the imperative of pure reason.

Reason (R) Kant believes that moral duty is given by one's intuition.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

28. Assertion (A) : According to Bradley, thought commits suicide while apprehending Reality.

Reason (R) : According to Bradley, thought and Reality are identical.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is B

29. Assertion (A) : Vivekananda upholds the ideal of Sarvadharma samānatā.

Reason (R) : Vivekananda believes in the unity and equality of all religions.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is A

30. Assertion (A) : The study of moral philosophy is not worth undertaking.

Reason (R) : Moral philosophers have disagreements regarding the same moral issues.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is D

31. Assertion (A) : 'All human beings have a right to freedom' is a moral judgement.

Reason (R) : It assets what ought to be

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer is A

32. The correct sequence of triple transformation in evolutionary theory of Sri Aurobindo is:

(A) psychic transformation, spiritual transformation and supra mental transformation

(B) psychic transformation, supra mental transformation and spiritual transformation

(D) supra mental transformation, psychic transformation and spiritual transformation

Correct Answer is B

33. According to Nyaya - vaiśesika which one of the following represents the correct sequence of the five members of syllogism?

(A) hetu, udaharana, pratijñā, upanaya, nigmana

(B) pratijñā, udaharana, hetu, nigmana, upanaya

(D) pratijña, hetu, udāharana, upanaya, nigmana

Correct Answer is D

34. The correct sequence of Astnga yoga of Patanjali is:

(A) Niyama, Asana, Yama, Pratyāhāra, Prānāyama, Dharana, Dhyana, Samādhi

(B) Yama, Niyama, Āsana, Prānāyāma, Pratyāhāra, Dharana, Dhyana, Samādhi

(D) Yama, Niyama, Asana, Pratyāhara, Prānāyāma, Dharana, Dhyana, Samādhi

Correct Answer is B

35. The correct sequence of Buddha's causal wheel of dependent origination is:

(A) trsna, upādāna, bhāva, jati, jara-maraņa, avidyā, vedna, samskāra, vijñana, nāmarūpa, şadāyatna, sparsa

(B) jara-marana, sparsa, avidya, vijñana, nāmarūpa, vedna, sadāyatna, samskāra, trsna, upādāna, bhāva, jati

(D) avidyā, samskāra, vijñana, nāmarūpa, şadāyatna, sparsa, vedna, trșnā upādāna, bhāva, jāti, jara-maraņa

Correct Answer is D

36. The correct sequence of four conditions of an intelligible sentence according to Nyaya is:

(A) Ākānkşā, Yogyatā, Sannidhi and Tātparya

(B) Yogyata, Sannidhi, Tatparya, and Äkänkşa

(D) Sannidhi, Tatparya, Ākānkşā, and Yogyatā

Correct Answer is A

37. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Thinkers)	List - II (Theory)
(a) Ramanuja	(i) Satkāryavāda
(b) Nagarjun	(ii) Viparitakhyātivāda
(c) Iswarakrishna	(iii) Brahmapariņāmavāda
(d) Kumarila	(iv) Sunyavāda

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Correct Answer is B

38. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Thinkers)	List - II (Theory)
(a) Sankara	(i) Parellism
(b) Spinoza	(ii) Divine-evolutionism
(c) Russell	(iii) Jivanmukti
(d) Sri Aurobindo	(iv) Theory of definite description

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Correct Answer is B

39. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Thinkers)	List - II (Theory)
(a) William James	(i) Number theory
(b) Kant	(ii) Dialectical method
(c) Hegel	(iii) Critical transcendental idealism
(d) Pythagoras	(iv) Pragmatism

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Correct Answer is B

40. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Authors)	List - II (Texts)
(a) Umaswati	(i) Yogasutras
(b) Patanjali	(ii) Taraksamgrah
(c) Annambhatta	(iii) Tattvärthasutra
(d) Keshav Mishra	(iv) Tarakbhaşa

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Correct Answer is B

41. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Authors)	List - II (Texts)
(a) Sri Aurobindo	(i) Being and Time
(b) Bradley	(ii) Mimämsä - Sutra
(c) Heidegger	(iii) The Human Cycle
(d) Jaimini	(iv) Essays on Truth and Reality

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Correct Answer is A

42. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Authors)	List - II (Texts)
(a) Augustine	(i) Tractates Logico Philosophies
(b) Hegel	(ii) Confessions
(c) Ludwig Wittgenstein	(iii) Phenomenology of Spirit
(d) Plato	(iv) Theatatus

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Correct Answer is C

43. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Schools)		List - II (Theory)
(a) Buddhism	(i) Svatah Pramanya Paratahapramanya
(b) Nyaya	(ii) Paratah Pramanya Paratahapramanya
(c) Mimamsa	(iii) Svatah Pramanya Svatahaprāmānya
(d) Sankhya	(iv) Paratah Pramanya Svatahaprāmānya

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Correct Answer is A

44. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (System/Text)		List - II (Types of Karma)
(a) Advaita	(i) Sanehita Karma, Prärabdha Karma and āgāmi - karma
(b) Gitā	(ii) Nitya Karma, naimittika - karma and kāmyakarma
(c) Jainism	(iii) Karma, Akarma and Vikarma
(d) Mimänisā	(iv) Jnāyāvaraniya - Karma, Jñey avaraniya - Karma and daršanā varaniya - Karma

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Correct Answer is A

45. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

List - I (Authors)	List - II (Works)
(a) Vatsayana	(i) Artha Shastra
(b) Kautilya	(ii) Artha Sangraha
(c) Kumarila Ghatta	(iii) Kamasutra
(d) Laugakshi - Bhaskara	(iv) Slokavartika

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Correct Answer is A

Read the following passage and answer question no. 46 to 50:

Neither the virtues, nor the vices are feelings, for we are not called worthy or worthless on account of our feelings, but on account of our virtues and vices. Moreover, we are not praised or blamed on account of our feelings. For a person is not praised for being frightened or angry; it is not simply for being angry that someone is blamed, but for being angry in a particular way. But we are praised or blamed on account of our virtues and vices. Then again, we feel angry or frightened without choosing to, whereas virtues are choices of some kind, or involve choice. In addition we are said to be moved with respect to our feelings, but in the case of the virtues and vices it is not a matter of being moved but of being in a certain condition. By the same token, the virtues are not capacities either. For, we are not said to be good or bad, or praised or blamed, simply in virtue of being capable of feeling. And again, we have capacities by nature, but we are not good or bad by nature, as noted above. So if the virtues are neither feelings nor capacities, it remains that they are dispositions. This then is our account of the kind of thing virtue is.

46. Moral judgement is based on our being:

(A) happy

(B) angry

(D) angry is a particular way

Correct Answer is C

47. A moral judgement is based on:

(A) our feelings, virtues and vices

(B) our feelings alone

(D) virtues and vices alone

Correct Answer is D

48. Virtues and vices are:

(A) dispositions

(B) capacities

(D) both feelings and capacities

Correct Answer is A

49. The distinction between feelings and virtues is that:

(A) feelings are being in a certain condition but virtues effects us

(B) feelings effect us, virtues are being in a certain condition

(D) feelings do not effect us but virtues effect us

Correct Answer is C

50. A moral judgement is based on virtues and not on feelings because:

(A) feelings are chosen and virtues are not chosen

(B) feelings are not chosen and virtues are chosen

(D) neither feelings nor virtues are chosen

Correct Answer is B

Saturday, May 11, 2024

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2013 Re-exam

1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years
Correct Answer is A

2. Telephone is an example of
(A) linear communication
(B) non-linear communication
(C) circular
(D) mechanised
Correct Answer is A

3. Means of grapevine communication are
(A) formal
(B) informal
(C) critical
(D) corporate
Correct Answer is B

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(A) ILO
(B) ITU
(C) UNDP
(D) UNESCO
Correct Answer is D

5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with
(A) reality
(B) falsity
(C) negativity
(D) passivity
Correct Answer is A

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(A) non-pervasive treasure
(B) limited judgement
(C) autonomous virtue
(D) cultural capital
Correct Answer is D

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) affective
(C) cognitive
(D) non-selective
Correct Answer is C

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Correct Answer is C

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A) 38
(B) 42
(C) 52
(D) 24
Correct Answer is D

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) F
Correct Answer is D

11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(A) 238
(B) 432
(C) 542
(D) 320
Correct Answer is A

12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid Rs.156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid Rs.204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A) 236
(B) 240
(C) 248
(D) 256
Correct Answer is B

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(A) QRUWK
(B) RQWUK
(C) RWQUK
(D) RWUKQ
Correct Answer is A

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav
(B) Arjun
(C) Rajesh
(D) Kamal
Correct Answer is B

15. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Correct Answer is B

16. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Correct Answer is B

17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Correct Answer is B

18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Correct Answer is B

19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Correct Answer is A
In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?
(A) 2007–08
(B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10
(D) 2010–11
Correct Answer is C

21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D) Total production of energy
Correct Answer is A

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity
Correct Answer is A

23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?
(A) 2006–07
(B) 2007–08
(C) 2008–09
(D) 2009–10
Correct Answer is C

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Correct Answer is B

25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Correct Answer is C

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Correct Answer is C

27. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Correct Answer is D

28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Correct Answer is D

29. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Correct Answer is D

30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer is A

33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D

34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is D
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Correct Answer is B

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Correct Answer is A

37. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Correct Answer is B

38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Correct Answer is B

39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from
(A) 1985 – 2002
(B) 1998 – 2000
(C) 1981 – 2000
(D) 1989 – 2001
Correct Answer is C

40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A) Role of media
(B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D) All the above
Correct Answer is D

41. A good teacher must be
(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Correct Answer is B

42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Correct Answer is C

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is
(A) Circular
(B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional
(D) Influential
Correct Answer is B

44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) Summative
Correct Answer is B

45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?
(A) Macro teaching
(B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching
(D) Micro teaching
Correct Answer is D

46. CLASS stands for
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Correct Answer is C

47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
(A) Single group experiment
(B) Residual group experiment
(C) Parallel group experiment
(D) Rational group experiment
Correct Answer is B

48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?
(A) t-test
(B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Run test
Correct Answer is A

49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Correct Answer is C

50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :
(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection
Correct Answer is A

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(A) Basic Science
(B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science
(D) Literature
Correct Answer is D

52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?
(A) Univariate analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies
(D) SWOT analysis
Correct Answer is B

53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control variable
Correct Answer is D

54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Correct Answer is D

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
Correct Answer is C

56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?
(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar
Correct Answer is D

57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation
Correct Answer is A

58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I (Biosphere Reserve)	List-II (Area of Location)
a. Nilgiri	i. Deccan Peninsula
b. Manas	ii. Chhattisgarh
c. Similipal	iii. Eastern Himalaya
d. Achankmar-Amarkantak	iv. Western Ghat

Code:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Correct Answer is D

59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea
Correct Answer is D

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India
Correct Answer is C

Wednesday, June 19, 2024

UGC NET Second Paper (Philosophy) June 2006

Saturday, May 11, 2024

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2013 Re-exam

UGC NET General Paper-1 June 2013 Re-exam

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